Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority action for a patient with a fever?

• A. Administer an antipyretic medication as prescribed.
• B. Assess the patient's temperature regularly.
• C. Provide cooling measures such as a cool compress.
• D. Provide the patient with blankets for comfort.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action when a patient has a fever is to assess the patient's temperature regularly. Monitoring the temperature helps track the effectiveness of interventions and detect any worsening fever. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) should be done based on healthcare provider's orders after assessing the patient's condition. While providing cooling measures such as a cool compress (Choice C) can help reduce fever, assessing the temperature takes precedence. Providing blankets for comfort (Choice D) is not the priority when dealing with a fever.

2. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?

• A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
• B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
• C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
• D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.

3. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?

• A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
• B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
• C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
• D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond when a patient expresses concerns about the side effects of a prescribed medication?

• A. Reassure the patient that side effects are rare.
• B. Discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient.
• C. Encourage the patient to speak to the pharmacist.
• D. Refer the patient to another healthcare provider for information.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient expresses concerns about medication side effects, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to discuss the benefits and risks of the medication with the patient. This approach helps the patient make an informed decision about their treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns by reassuring them that side effects are rare may not address the patient's specific worries. Choice C, while pharmacists can provide valuable information, the primary responsibility lies with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as referring the patient to another healthcare provider may disrupt continuity of care and not address the patient's concerns effectively.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with dehydration. Which finding indicates the patient's condition is worsening?

• A. Dry mucous membranes.
• B. Tachycardia and low blood pressure.
• C. Bradycardia and shallow respirations.
• D. Clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia and low blood pressure are indicative of worsening dehydration in a patient. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased intravascular volume, while low blood pressure reflects inadequate perfusion due to decreased fluid levels. Bradycardia and shallow respirations are not typical findings in worsening dehydration, and clear lung sounds do not directly correlate with the severity of dehydration.

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