Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

2. A nurse is assigned to care for a client with unstable blood pressure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Monitor the client every two hours.
• B. Continuously monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Wait for the healthcare provider to provide instructions.
• D. Ask the healthcare provider for specific instructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of a client with unstable blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs. This allows for immediate detection of any fluctuations in blood pressure and timely intervention if necessary. Choice A, monitoring every two hours, may not provide real-time information needed for prompt intervention. Choices C and D suggest waiting for instructions from the healthcare provider, which could cause a delay in addressing the unstable blood pressure, potentially leading to adverse outcomes. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is to continuously monitor the client's vital signs.

3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
• B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
• C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
• D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient with an incision. Which actions will best indicate an understanding of medical and surgical asepsis for a sterile dressing change?

• A. Donning sterile gown and gloves to remove the wound dressing
• B. Utilizing clean gloves to remove the dressing and clean supplies for the new dressing
• C. Utilizing clean gloves to remove the dressing and sterile supplies for the new dressing
• D. Donning clean goggles, gown, and gloves to dress the wound

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. When performing a sterile dressing change, it is essential to use clean gloves to remove soiled dressings and sterile gloves and supplies for applying the new dressing. This helps maintain aseptic technique and reduce the risk of introducing pathogens to the wound. Choices A, B, and D involve incorrect use of sterile and clean supplies, which can compromise the sterility of the procedure and increase the risk of infection.

5. When administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient, what is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Monitor the patient's electrolyte levels.
• B. Assess the patient's blood pressure regularly.
• C. Monitor the patient's heart rate every 4 hours.
• D. Check the patient's urine output hourly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient's blood pressure regularly. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial when administering IV fluids to a dehydrated patient as it helps in evaluating the patient's fluid status. Changes in blood pressure can indicate the effectiveness of the fluid therapy, the patient's response to treatment, and the possibility of complications such as fluid overload or hypovolemia. Monitoring electrolyte levels (Choice A) is essential but not the priority when assessing a dehydrated patient receiving IV fluids. Heart rate (Choice C) should be monitored more frequently than every 4 hours in such a situation. Checking urine output (Choice D) is important but not as critical as assessing blood pressure in this scenario.

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