Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

2. When considering a bone marrow transplant for a client with leukemia, which ethical principle pertains to minimizing harm to the client?

• A. Justice
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Autonomy
• D. Beneficence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to do no harm, making it crucial in medical decision-making. In the context of a bone marrow transplant for a client with leukemia, the primary concern is to minimize harm and avoid causing any unnecessary suffering or adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Justice relates to fairness in resource allocation and treatment decisions, Autonomy involves respecting the patient's right to make decisions about their own care, and Beneficence refers to the obligation to act in the patient's best interest and promote their well-being, which may involve some level of risk or harm for overall benefit.

3. What is a recommended nursing action for a client who experiences short-term memory loss after Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

• A. Provide cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Offer frequent orientation and reassurance
• C. Administer a sedative to improve memory recall
• D. Refer the client to a neurologist for further evaluation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing action for a client experiencing short-term memory loss after ECT is to offer frequent orientation and reassurance. This helps the client feel supported and aids in memory retention. Providing cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the primary intervention for memory loss post-ECT. Administering a sedative (Choice C) is not recommended as it may further affect memory recall. Referring the client to a neurologist (Choice D) for further evaluation is not the initial action needed; offering support and orientation should be the first approach to manage memory issues post-ECT.

4. What are the main differences between a stroke caused by ischemia and one caused by hemorrhage?

• A. Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain
• B. Bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured aneurysm
• C. Administering thrombolytics if within the treatment window
• D. Avoiding anticoagulants and preparing for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain." Ischemic stroke is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to reduced blood flow. Hemorrhagic stroke, on the other hand, is caused by bleeding in the brain due to a ruptured blood vessel. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Administering thrombolytics, avoiding anticoagulants, and preparing for surgery are specific management strategies that may apply to ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes but do not define the main differences between the two types of strokes.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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