Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a patient with a new prescription for brimonidine to treat open-angle glaucoma, what indicates an understanding of the instructions?

• A. I can expect my vision to improve quickly
• B. I should use it only when my eyes are irritated
• C. I can expect to feel some irritation when I put these drops in my eyes
• D. I will need regular eye exams

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using brimonidine to treat open-angle glaucoma, patients may experience temporary irritation in the eyes. Choice A is incorrect because vision improvement from brimonidine is not immediate. Choice B is incorrect as brimonidine should be used as prescribed, not just when eyes are irritated. Choice D is important but does not directly indicate an understanding of the medication's use.

2. A client with asthma is taking fluticasone. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Oral candidiasis
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Fluticasone, a corticosteroid medication commonly used to manage asthma, can lead to oral candidiasis due to its immunosuppressive effects. This fungal infection can manifest as white patches in the mouth and throat. Monitoring for signs of oral candidiasis is essential to initiate appropriate treatment. Polyuria (excessive urination) is not a common adverse effect of fluticasone. Hypertension and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this medication, making them incorrect choices.

3. A client has urinary incontinence, and the nurse is caring for them. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to prevent the development of skin breakdown?

• A. Request a prescription for the insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Check the client's skin every 8 hours for signs of breakdown
• C. Apply a moisture barrier ointment to the client's skin
• D. Clean the client's skin and perineum with hot water after each episode of incontinence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action to prevent skin breakdown in a client with urinary incontinence is to apply a moisture barrier ointment to the skin. This ointment helps protect the skin from the harmful effects of moisture exposure, reducing the risk of breakdown. Requesting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice A) should not be the first-line intervention for skin breakdown prevention. Checking the client's skin for signs of breakdown (Choice B) is important but not as effective as applying a moisture barrier. Cleaning the skin with hot water (Choice D) can actually be detrimental as hot water can strip the skin of its natural oils and worsen skin integrity.

4. A client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Flush the IV line and continue the infusion.
• B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Increase the IV infusion rate to reduce discomfort.
• D. Apply a warm compress to the IV site and continue monitoring.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Pain and swelling at an IV site can indicate infiltration or infection, which are serious complications. Stopping the infusion helps prevent further harm to the client, and notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and intervention. Choice A is incorrect because flushing the IV line and continuing the infusion could exacerbate the issue. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the IV infusion rate is not the appropriate action for pain and swelling at the site. Choice D is incorrect because applying a warm compress may not address the underlying issue of infiltration or infection; it's crucial to stop the infusion and seek further guidance.

5. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

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