Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, what is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration?

• A. Flush the NG tube with water before each feeding.
• B. Check the placement of the NG tube before each feeding.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• D. Provide the patient with oral care every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is the most appropriate intervention to prevent aspiration in a patient with an NG tube. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration by promoting the proper flow of contents through the gastrointestinal tract and minimizing the chances of stomach contents entering the airway. Flushing the NG tube with water before each feeding may not directly prevent aspiration. Checking the placement of the NG tube is important but does not specifically address the prevention of aspiration. Providing oral care every 4 hours is essential for maintaining oral hygiene but is not directly related to preventing aspiration in a patient with an NG tube.

2. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?

• A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
• B. Early detection of mental illness
• C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
• D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.

3. A nurse suspects a colleague of diverting narcotics. What is the nurse's first course of action?

• A. Confront the colleague directly about the suspicion.
• B. Report the suspicion to the nurse manager.
• C. Ignore the situation unless there is clear evidence.
• D. Keep a record of the colleague's actions for future reference.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first course of action for a nurse suspecting a colleague of diverting narcotics is to report the suspicion to the nurse manager. Confronting the colleague directly may not be safe and could compromise the investigation. Ignoring the situation is not appropriate as it can pose risks to patient safety. Keeping a record of the colleague's actions is not the primary action to take when drug diversion is suspected; reporting to the nurse manager is crucial for proper investigation and ensuring patient safety.

4. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report on a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has urolithiasis and reports severe ankle pain extending toward the abdomen
• B. A client who has acute cholecystitis and reports abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
• C. A client who has had a total knee arthroplasty, is 1 day postoperative, and reports a pain level of 8 on a 0 to 10 pain scale
• D. A client who has a fractured femur and reports sudden sharp chest pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a client with a fractured femur and sudden chest pain may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment. Choice A is incorrect because although severe pain is present, it is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues related to urolithiasis rather than a life-threatening condition. Choice B, related to acute cholecystitis, is less urgent than choice D as the pain radiating to the right shoulder is a common symptom but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Choice C, regarding a client post-total knee arthroplasty with a pain level of 8, is important but not as urgent as a potential pulmonary embolism in choice D.

5. A nurse is assessing a client following a head injury and a brief loss of consciousness. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 12
• B. Edematous bruise on the forehead
• C. Small drops of clear fluid in the left ear
• D. Pupils are 4 mm and reactive to light

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clear fluid draining from the ear may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak, which is a serious complication following a head injury. Reporting this finding is crucial as it may require immediate medical intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as concerning as a CSF leak. A GCS score of 12 is relatively high, indicating a mild level of consciousness alteration. An edematous bruise on the forehead is a common physical finding after a head injury. Pupils that are 4 mm and reactive to light suggest normal pupillary function.

Similar Questions