Nursing Elites

1. Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for social anxiety disorder?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Behavioral rehearsal
• C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• D. Medication management

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic intervention for social anxiety disorder. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety, leading to long-term symptom relief and improved coping strategies. Group therapy (choice A) can be beneficial as a complementary approach but may not be as effective as CBT for directly targeting individual cognitive and behavioral patterns. Behavioral rehearsal (choice B) is a technique used within CBT and not a standalone intervention for social anxiety disorder. Medication management (choice D) can be used as an adjunct to therapy in some cases but is not the first-line treatment for social anxiety disorder.

2. Which of the following interventions are appropriate for a client experiencing a panic attack? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Stay with the client and remain calm
• B. Encourage deep breathing
• C. Move the client to a quiet environment
• D. Mindfulness meditation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, it is crucial to provide immediate support to the client. Appropriate interventions include staying with the client and remaining calm, encouraging deep breathing, and moving the client to a quiet environment. However, mindfulness meditation, which involves focusing on the present moment and may require a certain level of concentration, may not be feasible or effective during an acute panic attack. The priority is to help the client feel safe and supported, which the other interventions address more directly. Mindfulness meditation might not be suitable during a panic attack due to the heightened state of anxiety and the need for immediate calming techniques.

3. Which therapeutic approach is considered most effective for treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

• A. Cognitive processing therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive processing therapy is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that has been shown to be highly effective in treating posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). This therapy focuses on helping individuals process and make sense of their traumatic experiences, leading to symptom reduction and improved coping mechanisms. Psychoanalysis, medication management, and group therapy can be beneficial in some cases, but cognitive processing therapy is specifically tailored for addressing the symptoms and underlying causes of PTSD. Psychoanalysis may not be as effective for PTSD due to its focus on unconscious conflicts rather than trauma processing. Medication management can be useful as an adjunct to therapy but does not address the core issues of PTSD. Group therapy can provide support but may not offer the individualized approach that cognitive processing therapy provides.

4. Which of the following is not a common symptom of major depressive disorder?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Feelings of hopelessness
• C. Increased energy
• D. Difficulty concentrating

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common symptoms of major depressive disorder include insomnia, feelings of hopelessness, difficulty concentrating, and appetite changes. Increased energy is not typically associated with major depressive disorder; instead, fatigue is more commonly observed. This symptom differentiation helps in diagnosing major depressive disorder accurately.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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