Nursing Elites

1. During a visit to an 84-year-old woman recovering from hip surgery, the nurse notices signs of confusion and poor skin turgor. The woman mentions she limits water intake to avoid nighttime bathroom trips. The nurse should explain to the woman that:

• A. She will need her medications adjusted and be readmitted for a complete workup.
• B. Limiting fluids can lead to body imbalances causing confusion; perhaps adjusting fluid intake timing is necessary.
• C. Post-surgical confusion is common, and it's safe not to urinate at night.
• D. Confusion after surgery is typical in the elderly due to sleep loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In elderly patients, fluid and electrolyte imbalances can manifest with subtle signs like confusion. Limiting fluids can lead to such imbalances, affecting cognitive function. Adjusting the timing of fluid intake can help maintain hydration without causing nighttime disruptions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests unnecessary hospital readmission and medication adjustments without addressing the root cause. Choice C wrongly normalizes the confusion and fails to address the potential issue of fluid restriction. Choice D incorrectly attributes confusion solely to sleep loss without considering the impact of fluid balance.

2. A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?

• A. A 34-year-old on NPO status who is receiving intravenous D5W
• B. A 50-year-old with an infection who is prescribed a sulfonamide antibiotic
• C. A 67-year-old who is experiencing pain and is prescribed ibuprofen (Motrin)
• D. A 73-year-old with tachycardia who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the 34-year-old on NPO status receiving intravenous D5W because D5W is a hypotonic solution that can dilute the blood's sodium levels, leading to hyponatremia. Patients on NPO status rely solely on intravenous fluids for hydration, making them more susceptible to electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to cause hyponatremia. Choice B, the 50-year-old with an infection on a sulfonamide antibiotic, is at risk for allergic reactions or renal issues. Choice C, the 67-year-old taking ibuprofen, is at risk for gastrointestinal bleeding or kidney problems. Choice D, the 73-year-old on digoxin with tachycardia, is more likely to experience digoxin toxicity, affecting the heart's rhythm.

3. What is the most abundant positive ion in blood plasma?

• A. Potassium.
• B. Calcium.
• C. Sodium.
• D. Both potassium and sodium are in equal concentrations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium. Sodium (Na+) is the most abundant cation in the extracellular fluid, including blood plasma. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and is essential for various physiological processes. Choice A, Potassium, is also an important ion in the body but is predominantly found intracellularly. Choice B, Calcium, is an essential mineral in the body but is not the most abundant positive ion in blood plasma. Choice D is incorrect as sodium is the primary positive ion in blood plasma, with a much higher concentration compared to potassium.

4. A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that do not apply.

• A. Decreased kidney mass
• B. Decreased renal blood flow
• C. Decreased excretion of potassium
• D. Increased conservation of sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. A nurse in the medical-surgical unit has a newly admitted patient who is oliguric; the acute care nurse practitioner orders a fluid challenge of 100 to 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. The nurse is aware this intervention will help:

• A. Distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia
• B. Evaluate pituitary gland function
• C. Distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function
• D. Provide an effective treatment for hypertension-induced oliguria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering a fluid challenge in oliguric patients helps to distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. This intervention aids in determining whether the oliguria is due to reduced renal blood flow (such as in fluid volume deficit or prerenal azotemia) or decreased renal function (such as in acute tubular necrosis). The response to this challenge can indicate the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the purpose of a fluid challenge in oliguric patients.

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