Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks gestation about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. This test will confirm whether your baby has a genetic disorder.
• B. Amniocentesis is used to assess your baby's lung maturity.
• C. You should not feel any pain during this procedure.
• D. This test will assess the amount of amniotic fluid around your baby.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because amniocentesis is a procedure that confirms genetic disorders by analyzing the amniotic fluid surrounding the baby. Choice B is incorrect because amniocentesis is not used to assess lung maturity. Choice C is incorrect because some discomfort or pain may be felt during the procedure. Choice D is incorrect because amniocentesis does not primarily assess the amount of amniotic fluid around the baby.

2. A client has a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bounding pulses
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Pale, cool skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pale, cool skin is a common finding in clients with a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL due to decreased oxygen carrying capacity. Bounding pulses (Choice A) are not typically associated with low hemoglobin levels. Elevated blood pressure (Choice B) is not a common finding in clients with anemia. While headache (Choice C) can occur with anemia, it is not a specific finding directly related to a hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL.

3. How should bleeding in a patient on warfarin be monitored?

• A. Monitor INR levels
• B. Monitor hemoglobin levels
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels. INR levels are the most critical indicator for monitoring bleeding risk in patients on warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio and specifically measures the clotting tendency of the blood. Monitoring hemoglobin levels, potassium levels, or platelet count are not as directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk in patients on warfarin.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer aspirin for discomfort
• B. Check the client's temperature every 4 hr
• C. Monitor the client's urine output
• D. Check for stool in the client's colostomy bag every 2 hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

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