a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 65 meql which of the following actions should the nurse t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about managing protein intake. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "You should limit your intake of high-protein foods." Clients with chronic kidney disease should reduce their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increasing intake of either plant-based or animal protein or high-protein foods can exacerbate kidney issues in individuals with chronic kidney disease.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious side effect of enoxaparin that requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the adverse effects of enoxaparin, so they do not take precedence over the urgent concern of gastrointestinal bleeding.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated WBC count can indicate a potential infection, especially in a postoperative client. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are common occurrences in postoperative clients and may not necessarily indicate a severe issue. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is a normal finding in the immediate postoperative period. A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) can be a mild fever, which is common postoperatively due to the body's response to tissue injury. Urine output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours may be within normal limits for a postoperative client, especially if they are still recovering from anesthesia.

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