ATI RN
ATI Nutrition 2024 NGN Exam
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about dietary needs. Which of the following foods should the nurse identify as being the lowest in phosphorus?
- A. Medium apple
- B. Bran cereal
- C. Scrambled eggs
- D. Ground turkey
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Apples are low in phosphorus, making them a suitable option for clients with chronic kidney disease.
2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with fluid overload in heart failure?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Check for edema
- C. Monitor intake and output
- D. Administer diuretics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is crucial in managing a patient with fluid overload in heart failure. Weight fluctuations can indicate fluid retention or loss, guiding healthcare professionals in adjusting treatment. While checking for edema (Choice B) and monitoring intake and output (Choice C) are important aspects of patient care, they are not as direct in assessing fluid overload as daily weight monitoring. Administering diuretics (Choice D) is a treatment option based on the assessment of fluid overload, making it a secondary intervention compared to monitoring weight.
3. During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Absence of clonus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Report of headache
Correct answer: Report of headache
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.
4. A client is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which symptom should the nurse identify as a priority to address?
- A. Tremors
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, increased blood pressure is a critical symptom that requires immediate attention. Elevated blood pressure can lead to serious complications such as cardiovascular events or stroke. Monitoring and managing blood pressure in clients experiencing alcohol withdrawal is crucial to prevent adverse outcomes. Tremors, nausea and vomiting, and insomnia are common symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as increased blood pressure. Therefore, addressing increased blood pressure takes precedence in the management of a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal.
5. Which dietary information should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a school-age child with chronic renal failure?
- A. High in sodium
- B. Low in Vitamin D
- C. Low in phosphorus
- D. Supplementation of vitamins C, E, K
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A low-phosphorus diet is recommended for children with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperphosphatemia, which can lead to bone disease and other complications. Phosphorus is found in many processed foods and should be limited. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because high sodium intake can lead to fluid retention and hypertension, while Vitamin D supplementation and vitamins C, E, K are not specifically indicated for dietary recommendations in chronic renal failure.
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