Nursing Elites

1. A client with angina pectoris is being taught about starting therapy with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication

• A. after each meal and at bedtime.
• B. every 15 minutes during an acute attack.
• C. at the first indication of chest pain.
• D. with 8 oz of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets are used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. The client should take the medication at the first indication of chest pain to help dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be scheduled after each meal or at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as taking the medication every 15 minutes during an acute attack is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to take nitroglycerin with water, the timing of water intake is not as critical as taking the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

2. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

3. A nurse is preparing for the hospital admission of a client who is suspected to have active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement to safely care for this client?

• A. Staff and visitors should wear gowns, masks, and gloves while in the client's room.
• B. The client should be placed in a private room with a special ventilation system.
• C. The client may be placed in a room with other clients who require droplet isolation precautions.
• D. The protocol for donning and removing personal protective equipment before entering or leaving the room of a client with TB is different than for clients who are in other types of isolation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client suspected of having active tuberculosis (TB), it is essential to place the client in a private room with a special ventilation system to prevent the spread of TB bacteria to others. Choice A is incorrect because staff and visitors should wear respiratory protection, not just gowns, masks, and gloves. Choice C is incorrect as clients with TB should not be placed in a room with other clients, as they need to be isolated to prevent transmission. Choice D is incorrect because the protocol for donning and removing personal protective equipment for clients with TB is similar to other types of isolation, focusing on proper infection control measures.

4. A client who is HIV-positive, has pneumonia and is not responding to antibiotic therapy may have active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) due to exposure history and symptoms of night sweats and hemoptysis. Which test is the most reliable to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Presence of bronchophony
• C. Mantoux test
• D. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. The most reliable test to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB is the sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. This test helps identify the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of TB, in the sputum. Chest x-rays can show characteristic findings of TB but are not as reliable as sputum cultures for confirmation. Bronchophony is a test for assessing vocal resonance and is not specific for TB diagnosis. The Mantoux test is a screening test for TB exposure but cannot confirm active disease.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has COPD. The nurse should expect the client's chest to be which of the following shapes?

• A. Pigeon
• B. Funnel
• C. Kyphotic
• D. Barrel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client with COPD, the nurse should expect the client's chest to be barrel-shaped. This shape is a classic characteristic of COPD due to hyperinflation of the lungs. A 'Pigeon' chest shape is associated with pectus carinatum, a deformity of the chest wall. A 'Funnel' chest shape is seen in conditions like pectus excavatum. 'Kyphotic' refers to an exaggerated outward curvature of the thoracic spine. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Barrel' as it is the expected chest shape in clients with COPD.

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