Nursing Elites

1. A client with angina pectoris is being taught about starting therapy with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication

• A. after each meal and at bedtime.
• B. every 15 minutes during an acute attack.
• C. at the first indication of chest pain.
• D. with 8 oz of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets are used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. The client should take the medication at the first indication of chest pain to help dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be scheduled after each meal or at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as taking the medication every 15 minutes during an acute attack is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to take nitroglycerin with water, the timing of water intake is not as critical as taking the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

2. A client is telling the nurse in the clinic that he gets a headache after taking sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for his angina pain. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce the nitroglycerin dose
• B. Ask the provider to prescribe a strong analgesic
• C. Lie down in a cool environment and rest
• D. Ask the provider to prescribe a different medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to lie down in a cool environment and rest after taking sublingual nitroglycerin for angina pain. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, and resting in a cool environment can help alleviate the headache. Reducing the nitroglycerin dose is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider as it may compromise the effectiveness of the medication in managing angina. Asking for a strong analgesic is not appropriate since the headache is likely related to the nitroglycerin and not a separate issue requiring a pain reliever. Requesting a different medication should also involve consulting the healthcare provider to ensure an appropriate alternative is prescribed for angina management.

3. A nurse in a community health center is assessing the results of the purified protein derivative (PPD) testing she performed to screen for tuberculosis (TB). She interprets which of the following results as positive for a 6-year-old client with no risk factors for TB?

• A. 4-mm erythema
• B. 5-mm induration
• C. 10-mm wheal
• D. 15-mm induration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 15-mm induration. In PPD testing, an induration (hardened raised area) of 15 mm or more is considered positive for TB in individuals with no risk factors. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because an erythema of 4 mm, induration of 5 mm, or wheal of 10 mm are not indicative of a positive TB test result in a low-risk individual. Therefore, the interpretation of a 15-mm induration would lead the nurse to consider the test positive for TB in this case.

4. A nurse is preparing for the hospital admission of a client who is suspected to have active tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement to safely care for this client?

• A. Staff and visitors should wear gowns, masks, and gloves while in the client's room.
• B. The client should be placed in a private room with a special ventilation system.
• C. The client may be placed in a room with other clients who require droplet isolation precautions.
• D. The protocol for donning and removing personal protective equipment before entering or leaving the room of a client with TB is different than for clients who are in other types of isolation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client suspected of having active tuberculosis (TB), it is essential to place the client in a private room with a special ventilation system to prevent the spread of TB bacteria to others. Choice A is incorrect because staff and visitors should wear respiratory protection, not just gowns, masks, and gloves. Choice C is incorrect as clients with TB should not be placed in a room with other clients, as they need to be isolated to prevent transmission. Choice D is incorrect because the protocol for donning and removing personal protective equipment for clients with TB is similar to other types of isolation, focusing on proper infection control measures.

5. When caring for a client with COPD, which intervention should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake to less than 2 L/day.
• B. Encourage the client to use the upper chest for respiration.
• C. Have the client use the early-morning hours for exercise and activity.
• D. Instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use pursed-lip breathing. This technique helps improve breathing efficiency by keeping the airways open during exhalation and reducing air trapping. Restricting fluid intake to less than 2 L/day is not appropriate for a client with COPD, as they need adequate hydration. Using the upper chest for respiration is incorrect as it promotes shallow breathing, which is not ideal for COPD patients. While exercise is beneficial, early-morning hours may not be the best time for clients with COPD due to increased respiratory distress in the morning.

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