Nursing Elites

1. A client prescribed home oxygen therapy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will be able to tell the amount of oxygen being delivered by looking at the flowmeter.
• B. I should contact my doctor if I notice a decrease in my ability to concentrate.
• C. I will ensure that visitors smoke outside.
• D. I should see a frosty buildup on the tank when I refill my portable oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The client's statement indicates a need for further teaching because the flowmeter indicates the flow rate of oxygen, not the total amount of oxygen being delivered. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate understanding of safety measures and indications for seeking medical attention in relation to home oxygen therapy, making them appropriate statements.

2. A client is telling the nurse in the clinic that he gets a headache after taking sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for his angina pain. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce the nitroglycerin dose
• B. Ask the provider to prescribe a strong analgesic
• C. Lie down in a cool environment and rest
• D. Ask the provider to prescribe a different medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to lie down in a cool environment and rest after taking sublingual nitroglycerin for angina pain. Headaches are a common side effect of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory effects, and resting in a cool environment can help alleviate the headache. Reducing the nitroglycerin dose is not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider as it may compromise the effectiveness of the medication in managing angina. Asking for a strong analgesic is not appropriate since the headache is likely related to the nitroglycerin and not a separate issue requiring a pain reliever. Requesting a different medication should also involve consulting the healthcare provider to ensure an appropriate alternative is prescribed for angina management.

3. A client with angina pectoris is being taught about starting therapy with nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication

• A. after each meal and at bedtime.
• B. every 15 minutes during an acute attack.
• C. at the first indication of chest pain.
• D. with 8 oz of water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablets are used to relieve chest pain associated with angina. The client should take the medication at the first indication of chest pain to help dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart muscle. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be scheduled after each meal or at bedtime. Choice B is incorrect as taking the medication every 15 minutes during an acute attack is excessive and not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to take nitroglycerin with water, the timing of water intake is not as critical as taking the medication at the first sign of chest pain.

4. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

5. A client who is HIV-positive, has pneumonia and is not responding to antibiotic therapy may have active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) due to exposure history and symptoms of night sweats and hemoptysis. Which test is the most reliable to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Presence of bronchophony
• C. Mantoux test
• D. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. The most reliable test to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB is the sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. This test helps identify the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of TB, in the sputum. Chest x-rays can show characteristic findings of TB but are not as reliable as sputum cultures for confirmation. Bronchophony is a test for assessing vocal resonance and is not specific for TB diagnosis. The Mantoux test is a screening test for TB exposure but cannot confirm active disease.

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