Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at a provider's office receives a phone call from a client who reports unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet 5 minutes ago. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Tell the client to take an aspirin.
• B. Instruct the client to call 911.
• C. Have the client take another nitroglycerin tablet in 15 minutes.
• D. Advise the client to come to the office.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client reporting unrelieved chest pain after taking a nitroglycerin tablet could be indicative of a serious cardiac event. Instructing the client to call 911 is the most appropriate response because immediate medical attention is necessary for chest pain that is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Telling the client to take an aspirin (Choice A) may not address the urgency of the situation, and aspirin might not be appropriate depending on the client's medical history. Having the client take another nitroglycerin tablet (Choice C) without relief could lead to overdosage. Advising the client to come to the office (Choice D) is not the best course of action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency that requires immediate intervention.

2. A provider is discharging a client with a prescription for home oxygen therapy. Client and family teaching by the nurse should include all of the following instructions except?

• A. Cleanse the mask or collar with soapy water every other day.
• B. Ensure that the straps on the mask are secure but not too tight.
• C. Apply petroleum jelly around and inside the nares.
• D. Post 'no smoking' warning signs at home in a prominent location.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When providing instructions for home oxygen therapy, it is important to ensure safety and proper care. Choices A, B, and D are all essential instructions for the client and family. Choice C, 'Apply petroleum jelly around and inside the nares,' is incorrect. Petroleum jelly should not be used near oxygen sources as it is flammable and can increase the risk of fire hazard. Therefore, this instruction should not be included in the teaching.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who came to the emergency department reporting chest pain. The provider suspects a myocardial infarction. While waiting for the laboratory to report the client's troponin levels, the client asks what this blood test will show. The nurse should explain that troponin is

• A. an enzyme that indicates damage to brain, heart, and skeletal muscle tissues.
• B. a protein whose levels reflect the risk for coronary artery disease.
• C. a heart muscle protein that appears in the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart.
• D. a protein that helps transport oxygen throughout the body.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that troponin is a heart muscle protein that appears in the bloodstream when there is damage to the heart. Troponin is a specific marker for heart muscle damage, particularly seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Choice A is incorrect as troponin is not an enzyme that indicates damage to brain and skeletal muscle tissues. Choice B is incorrect as troponin is not a protein whose levels reflect the risk for coronary artery disease; it indicates heart muscle damage. Choice D is incorrect as troponin is not a protein that helps transport oxygen throughout the body; its presence in the bloodstream is specific to heart muscle damage.

4. A client hospitalized with deep vein thrombosis has been on IV heparin for 5 days. The provider prescribes oral warfarin (Coumadin) without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.
• B. I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today
• C. Both heparin and Coumadin work together to dissolve the clots.
• D. The IV heparin increases the effects of the Coumadin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'The Coumadin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the Coumadin reaches a therapeutic level.' Warfarin (Coumadin) is an oral anticoagulant that takes time to reach its full effect, typically a few days. In the meantime, IV heparin is used to provide immediate anticoagulation until the Coumadin levels become therapeutic. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV heparin abruptly without reaching a therapeutic level with Coumadin can increase the risk of clot formation. Option C is incorrect because heparin and Coumadin do not work together to dissolve clots; they both have anticoagulant effects but work differently. Option D is incorrect because IV heparin does not directly increase the effects of Coumadin; they have different mechanisms of action.

5. A client who is HIV-positive, has pneumonia and is not responding to antibiotic therapy may have active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) due to exposure history and symptoms of night sweats and hemoptysis. Which test is the most reliable to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Presence of bronchophony
• C. Mantoux test
• D. Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. The most reliable test to confirm the diagnosis of active pulmonary TB is the sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus. This test helps identify the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of TB, in the sputum. Chest x-rays can show characteristic findings of TB but are not as reliable as sputum cultures for confirmation. Bronchophony is a test for assessing vocal resonance and is not specific for TB diagnosis. The Mantoux test is a screening test for TB exposure but cannot confirm active disease.

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