Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Ranitidine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid.
• B. Avoid drinking coffee while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Stop the medication if you develop a headache.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Ranitidine is to take the medication at bedtime. Ranitidine is best taken at bedtime as it helps decrease the production of stomach acid during the night, providing optimal relief for conditions like heartburn or acid indigestion.

2. A client with Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis is receiving Streptomycin IM among other antibiotics. For which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Extremity paresthesias
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Severe constipation
• D. Complex partial seizures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is extremity paresthesias. Streptomycin, used to treat infections like Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis, can cause paresthesias in the hands and feet as an adverse effect. Monitoring for this symptom is vital to detect and manage it promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because urinary retention, severe constipation, and complex partial seizures are not commonly associated adverse effects of Streptomycin.

3. What is the therapeutic class of Valproate?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. Antianxiety, benzodiazepines
• C. Anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressant
• D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Valproate belongs to the therapeutic class of anticonvulsants. It is primarily used to manage seizures but is also effective in treating vascular headaches. Therefore, it is not classified as an anticoagulant, antianxiety medication, or mood stabilizer. Option A, anticoagulant, is incorrect as valproate does not have anticoagulant properties. Option B, antianxiety benzodiazepines, is incorrect as valproate is not primarily used to treat anxiety disorders with benzodiazepines. Option D, mood stabilizer, is incorrect as valproate is not classified as a mood stabilizer, although it can be used in some cases for mood disorders, its primary therapeutic class is anticonvulsant.

4. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?

• A. Heparin
• B. Insulin
• C. Propranolol
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who has a prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. Previous history of thromboembolism
• B. Concurrent use of an antacid
• C. History of bronchial asthma
• D. Recent weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with a history of bronchial asthma. Reporting a history of bronchial asthma to the provider is crucial as it would prompt a review of the medication prescription to avoid potential adverse effects and consider alternative treatment options.

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