Nursing Elites

1. When educating a client with a new prescription for Losartan, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• B. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of dehydration when taking Losartan. Losartan can lead to dehydration, so it is crucial for the client to watch out for symptoms like dry mouth, increased thirst, and reduced urine output. Monitoring for these signs can help prevent complications associated with dehydration while taking this medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Losartan is not known to have interactions with grapefruit juice, does not require a specific amount of water for intake, and can be taken with or without food.

2. What is the antidote for copper toxicity?

• A. Glucagon
• B. Aminocaproic acid
• C. Atropine
• D. Penicillamine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Penicillamine is the specific chelating agent used for copper toxicity. It forms stable complexes with copper, which are then excreted in the urine. Glucagon is used for treating hypoglycemia, aminocaproic acid is used to treat bleeding disorders, and atropine is used as an antidote for certain types of poisoning, such as organophosphate toxicity.

3. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Administer subcutaneously in a large muscle mass to prevent injury.
• B. Ensure that the medication is kept at room temperature until just prior to administration.
• C. Invert vial gently to mix well before withdrawing dose.
• D. Discard vial after removing one dose of the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.

5. A client is prescribed Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hypertension
• C. Excessive perspiration
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist, which stimulates muscarinic receptors. Activation of these receptors can lead to increased sweating (excessive perspiration) as a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with muscarinic stimulation. Dry mouth is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications, hypertension is not a common manifestation of muscarinic stimulation, and fecal impaction is not directly related to muscarinic receptor activation.

Similar Questions