Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about foot care, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Soak your feet in hot water every day.
• B. Apply lotion between your toes.
• C. Inspect your feet daily.
• D. Use over-the-counter products to remove corns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inspecting the feet daily is crucial for clients with diabetes mellitus to detect early signs of injury or infection promptly. This practice helps prevent serious complications such as diabetic foot ulcers. Soaking feet in hot water daily can lead to skin dryness and increase the risk of injury. Applying lotion between toes can cause moisture buildup, leading to fungal infections. Using over-the-counter products to remove corns can result in skin damage and should be done under healthcare provider supervision.

2. What is the primary purpose of therapeutic communication in healthcare?

• A. To gather client information.
• B. To provide client education.
• C. To establish a therapeutic relationship.
• D. To document client care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary purpose of therapeutic communication in healthcare is to establish a therapeutic relationship between the healthcare provider and the client. Through effective communication, trust, empathy, and understanding can be fostered, which are essential for providing quality care and promoting positive health outcomes. Building a therapeutic relationship enhances patient satisfaction, improves adherence to treatment plans, and increases the likelihood of successful health outcomes.

3. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Monitor intake and output every 8 hours.
• B. Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours.
• C. Measure the client's temperature every 24 hours.
• D. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flush the feeding tube every 4 hours. Flushing the feeding tube every 4 hours is essential to maintain patency and prevent clogging, ensuring the client receives the prescribed enteral nutrition without interruption. This intervention helps prevent complications such as tube occlusion. Monitoring intake and output is important for assessing the client's hydration status but does not directly address tube patency. Measuring the client's temperature is essential for monitoring for signs of infection but is not directly related to tube maintenance. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours is important for infection control but does not address tube patency.

4. A client is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent aspiration?

• A. Monitor gastric residuals every 4 hours.
• B. Position the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Check for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding.
• D. Warm the formula to body temperature before feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residuals every 4 hours is essential to assess the stomach's ability to empty properly, reducing the risk of aspiration. It helps in determining if the feedings are being tolerated by the client and if adjustments are needed in the feeding regimen. Positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position helps prevent reflux and aspiration by promoting proper digestion and emptying of the stomach contents. Checking for tube placement by auscultating air after feeding confirms correct tube placement in the stomach. Warming the formula to body temperature before feeding enhances client comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor gastric residuals to prevent aspiration, as it directly assesses the stomach's ability to empty properly and the tolerance of the feedings.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

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