ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.
2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient admitted with possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
- C. Get IV access
- D. Auscultate heart sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This intervention is a priority for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome because nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, increase blood flow to the heart muscle, relieve chest pain, and reduce cardiac workload. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing myocardial infarction but is not the initial priority. Getting IV access (choice C) is essential for medication administration and fluid resuscitation but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin. Auscultating heart sounds (choice D) is a routine assessment but does not address the immediate need to relieve chest pain and improve blood flow to the heart in acute coronary syndrome.
3. Which of the following best describes a sequential design?
- A. Does not address diversity in developmental outcomes.
- B. Permits researchers to check if cohort effects are operating.
- C. Is less efficient than a longitudinal design.
- D. Makes cross-sectional, but not longitudinal, comparisons.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A sequential design permits researchers to check if cohort effects are operating. This design involves combining cross-sectional and longitudinal research, allowing for the comparison of different cohorts at different ages. By using this approach, researchers can determine if developmental changes observed are due to age or generation-specific factors. Therefore, a sequential design is valuable in addressing the potential influence of cohort effects on developmental outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a sequential design does not neglect diversity in developmental outcomes, is not necessarily less efficient than a longitudinal design, and can make both cross-sectional and longitudinal comparisons.
4. A client is about to undergo surgery and is unsure about the procedure despite signing the consent. What should the nurse do?
- A. Reassure the client and proceed with the surgery.
- B. Stop the surgery and consult with the surgeon.
- C. Proceed with the surgery but document the client's concerns.
- D. Postpone the surgery until further clarification is provided.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client expresses doubts about a procedure after signing the consent form, it is crucial to stop the surgery and consult with the surgeon. This is important to ensure that the client's concerns are addressed, and there is a clear understanding of the procedure. Reassuring the client and proceeding with the surgery (choice A) may violate the client's autonomy and right to informed consent. Proceeding with the surgery but documenting the concerns (choice C) is not sufficient as the client's doubts should be resolved before proceeding. Postponing the surgery until further clarification is provided (choice D) may be necessary, but the immediate step should be to consult with the surgeon to address the client's concerns.
5. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine, leading to muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in body temperature. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are indicative of malignant hyperthermia, a potential complication of succinylcholine. Dantrolene is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia as it acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and counteract the symptoms. Neostigmine (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents, not for malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (Choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (Choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is not the appropriate medication for malignant hyperthermia.
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