a nurse is teaching a group of new parents about immunizations the nurse should instruct the parents that the series for which of the following vacci
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology

1. When discussing immunizations, which vaccine series is typically completed before a child's first birthday?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The rotavirus vaccine series is usually completed before a child's first birthday. It is given to infants in a series of doses starting at 2 months of age and must be completed by 8 months of age. This vaccine helps protect against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, Meningococcal conjugate vaccine, and Varicella vaccine are not typically completed before a child's first birthday.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is prescribed Metformin. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metformin can lead to lactic acidosis, especially in individuals with impaired renal function. Monitoring the client's serum creatinine levels is crucial to assess kidney function because Metformin is eliminated by the kidneys, and impaired renal function can increase the risk of adverse effects. Monitoring blood glucose levels is essential for assessing the effectiveness of Metformin in managing diabetes but is not directly related to potential adverse effects of Metformin. Creatine kinase is not typically monitored in relation to Metformin therapy. Hemoglobin A1c is used to assess long-term glucose control in diabetes but is not specific for monitoring Metformin adverse effects.

3. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

4. What is the antidote for Heparin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clotting. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for Heparin as it binds to heparin, neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. Vitamin K is not the antidote for Heparin; it is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist for opioids, and Toradol is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) for pain relief. Therefore, the correct antidote for Heparin is Protamine sulfate.

5. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the nurse tell the client to expect before beginning this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting Calcitonin-salmon, it is important to assess for any potential allergies as anaphylaxis can occur. A skin test is usually conducted to determine if the client is allergic to the medication. The nurse should also inquire about any previous allergies to fish, as Calcitonin-salmon is derived from salmon. Options B, C, and D are not necessary before initiating Calcitonin-salmon therapy. ECG is not directly related to this medication, Mantoux test is used to diagnose tuberculosis, and liver function tests are not specifically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon.

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