Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is talking with the partner of a client who has dementia. The client's partner expresses frustration about finding time to manage household responsibilities while caring for their partner. The nurse should identify that the partner is experiencing which of the following types of role-performance stress?

• A. Role ambiguity
• B. Role overload
• C. Role conflict
• D. Sick role

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the partner is struggling to balance caring for their loved one with dementia and managing household responsibilities. This situation represents role conflict, where conflicting demands from different roles (caregiver and homemaker) create stress. Role ambiguity (choice A) refers to uncertainty about what is expected in a role, not conflicting demands. Role overload (choice B) occurs when there are too many responsibilities within a single role, not conflicting roles. The sick role (choice D) is a sociological concept related to the rights and responsibilities of individuals who are ill.

2. Which type of HMO contracts with two or more IPAs (Independent Practice Associations)?

• A. Staff model
• B. Point of service model
• C. Network model
• D. Group model

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Network model. A network model of HMOs contracts with two or more IPAs. In a network model, the HMO contracts with multiple IPAs to provide healthcare services to its members, offering a wider range of choices and flexibility in selecting healthcare providers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the staff model involves employing physicians and healthcare providers directly, the point of service model allows members to seek care both in-network and out-of-network, and the group model is not specifically associated with contracting IPAs.

3. A Nurse Manager completes an interruption log and identifies two staff members who take an inordinate amount of time with drop-in issues that are not urgent. What are some methods to address this behavior in an attempt to better manage time? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Designate specific time slots for drop-in visits.
• B. Position the desk chair so it is not facing the hallway.
• C. Communicate with staff about using e-mail for non-urgent matters to improve time management.
• D. When staff members drop in, the manager should stand and remain standing during the conversation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Designating specific time slots for drop-in visits helps in managing interruptions effectively by consolidating them into designated periods. This approach allows the Nurse Manager to allocate focused time for addressing these issues without disrupting workflow. Option B, repositioning the desk chair, is not a standard strategy for managing time or interruptions. Option C, promoting the use of e-mail for non-urgent matters, may help in some cases but may not entirely address the behavior of extended drop-in visits. Option D, standing during conversations, may not be practical for longer discussions and does not provide a structured approach to address time management issues.

4. Which of the following is an essential element of a quality improvement (QI) program?

• A. Blame and punishment
• B. Employee satisfaction
• C. Continual monitoring
• D. Strict adherence to policies

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential element of a quality improvement (QI) program is continual monitoring. Continual monitoring allows for the ongoing assessment of processes, identification of areas for improvement, and tracking of progress. Option A, 'Blame and punishment,' is incorrect as QI programs focus on systemic issues rather than individual blame. Option B, 'Employee satisfaction,' while important for organizational culture, is not an essential element of QI programs. Option D, 'Strict adherence to policies,' is valuable but not the core essential element, which is continual monitoring to drive improvement.

5. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

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