a nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for metformin to treat type 2 diabetes which of the following medicati
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as placing the client at risk for lactic acidosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is known to have a risk of causing lactic acidosis, particularly in clients with renal impairment or predisposing conditions. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use that can be life-threatening. Metoprolol, Lisinopril, and Insulin do not have a known association with lactic acidosis. Healthcare professionals should monitor clients prescribed metformin carefully, especially those with risk factors, to detect and manage lactic acidosis promptly.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering eye drops, it is essential to ask the client to look up at the ceiling. This position helps prevent the drops from falling onto the cornea, ensuring that the medication is properly absorbed without causing discomfort or irritation.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.

5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Methotrexate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Methotrexate is not typically used to treat rheumatic fever, which is more commonly managed with antibiotics to eradicate the underlying infection. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of conditions like sarcomas, leukemias, and ectopic pregnancies due to its anti-inflammatory and anti-cancer properties.

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