Nursing Elites

1. A client has been on levothyroxine therapy for several months. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?

• A. Decrease in level of thyroxine (T4)
• B. Increase in weight
• C. Increase in hours of sleep per night
• D. Decrease in level of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A therapeutic response to levothyroxine is indicated by a decrease in the level of TSH. This decrease signifies that the body requires less stimulation to produce thyroid hormone, reflecting a normalization of thyroid function due to the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as an increase in T4 levels, weight gain, and increased sleep hours are not indicative of a therapeutic response to levothyroxine therapy.

2. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?

• A. Heparin
• B. Insulin
• C. Propranolol
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication before bed.
• B. Monitor for increased blood pressure.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for leg cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for leg cramps.' Leg cramps may indicate hypokalemia, an adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide, and should be reported to the provider. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturia. Choice B is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that helps lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food.

4. A client in a coronary care unit is being admitted after CPR post cardiac arrest. The client is receiving IV lidocaine at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?

• A. Prevents dysrhythmias
• B. Slows intestinal motility
• C. Dissolves blood clots
• D. Relieves pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lidocaine is administered to prevent dysrhythmias by delaying conduction in the heart and reducing the automaticity of heart tissue. This action helps stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias post-cardiac arrest. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lidocaine is not used for slowing intestinal motility, dissolving blood clots, or relieving pain in this context.

5. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine, leading to muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in body temperature. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are indicative of malignant hyperthermia, a potential complication of succinylcholine. Dantrolene is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia as it acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and counteract the symptoms. Neostigmine (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents, not for malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (Choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (Choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is not the appropriate medication for malignant hyperthermia.

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