ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.
3. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.
4. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
- C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?
- A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15
- B. Blood drainage on the initial dressing measuring 3 cm
- C. Report of dry mouth
- D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.
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