ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for potassium chloride. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate 88/min
- C. Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 136 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range, indicating hypokalemia. Before administering potassium chloride, which is used to treat low potassium levels, the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and potential adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the need for potassium chloride administration.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should expect to develop a dry cough while taking this medication.
- B. This medication can cause a slow heart rate.
- C. You should increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- D. You should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client prescribed with lisinopril is that they should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, using salt substitutes that contain potassium can worsen this condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lisinopril is not typically associated with causing a dry cough or a slow heart rate, and increasing potassium intake can be harmful in the presence of lisinopril-induced hyperkalemia.
3. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid foods that are high in potassium.
- B. I will avoid foods that are high in sodium.
- C. I will need to have my blood pressure checked regularly while taking this medication.
- D. I will need to have my potassium levels checked regularly while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus receiving regular insulin should be monitored for which of the following manifestations of hypoglycemia?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Dry skin.
- C. Increased thirst.
- D. Increased urinary output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur as a complication of insulin therapy in clients with diabetes mellitus. Dry skin (choice B) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are symptoms more commonly seen in conditions like hyperglycemia or diabetes insipidus, not hypoglycemia.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?
- A. Constipation.
- B. Drowsiness.
- C. Orthostatic hypotension.
- D. Respiratory depression.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.
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