ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?
- A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
- B. Platelet count 148,000/mm3
- C. Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
- D. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a total knee replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Serous drainage on the dressing
- C. Temperature 37.3°C (99.1°F)
- D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Calf pain on dorsiflexion following knee surgery may indicate a complication such as deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition requiring medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal range for a client post knee surgery and do not typically indicate immediate complications that require urgent reporting.
3. A client has a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Check for the presence of bowel sounds every 8 hours.
- B. Flush the NG tube every 24 hours.
- C. Provide the client with sips of water every 2 hours.
- D. Keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the client's head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. This position helps prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression by reducing the risk of reflux and promoting proper drainage. Choice A is incorrect because checking for bowel sounds is not directly related to the care of a nasogastric tube. Choice B is incorrect as flushing the NG tube every 24 hours is not a standard nursing practice and may lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect because providing sips of water may interfere with the purpose of gastric decompression, which is to keep the stomach empty.
4. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on diuretics?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Patients on diuretics are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion by the kidneys. Hypokalemia can lead to serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Hyponatremia (choice B) is an imbalance of sodium levels and is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is the opposite condition where potassium levels are elevated and is less common in patients on diuretics. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an excess of calcium in the blood and is not directly related to diuretic use. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial in patients taking diuretics.
5. A client with hypertension is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse on managing blood pressure at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take medication at bedtime.
- B. Check blood pressure once a week.
- C. Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.
- D. Stop taking medication once blood pressure is within the normal range.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use a blood pressure cuff that fits snugly around the arm.' Using a properly fitting cuff is essential for accurate blood pressure measurements. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of medication administration should be individualized and not specified in the question. Choice B is incorrect as checking blood pressure once a week may not provide sufficient monitoring for a client with hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension and complications.
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