ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer aspirin for discomfort
- B. Check the client's temperature every 4 hr
- C. Monitor the client's urine output
- D. Check for stool in the client's colostomy bag every 2 hr
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
- B. I should take this medication with food.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a headache.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. This statement indicates that the client understands the potential side effect associated with the medication. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is typically taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods without healthcare provider guidance can lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because a headache is not a common reason to stop taking lisinopril.
3. A nurse has just received change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who was just given a glass of orange juice for a low blood glucose level.
- B. A client who is scheduled for a procedure in 1 hr.
- C. A client who has 100 mL of fluid remaining in his IV bag.
- D. A client who received a pain medication 30 min ago for postoperative pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A client with low blood glucose levels needs immediate assessment to ensure stabilization. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening situations that require urgent assessment. Option B can be attended to after addressing the client with low blood glucose levels. Option C can be managed based on the infusion rate and the client's condition. Option D, although important, can be assessed after ensuring the client with low blood glucose levels is stable.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
- B. 1+ pitting edema
- C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the client's legs every 2 hours.
- B. Instruct the client to sit with the legs crossed.
- C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. Sequential compression devices help prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow in the legs. Massaging the client's legs every 2 hours (choice A) may dislodge a clot if present, leading to a higher risk of embolism. Instructing the client to sit with the legs crossed (choice B) can impede blood flow and increase the risk of DVT. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) is not indicated for preventing DVT, as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, not to prevent blood clots.
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