a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy the clients platelet count is 25000mm3 which of the following actions should the nurse ta
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased risk of bleeding. Stool softeners help prevent straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding in individuals with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is more about reducing the risk of infection rather than managing thrombocytopenia.

3. A client in active labor is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a baseline FHR of 170/min indicates fetal tachycardia, which needs further evaluation. Choice A about contractions lasting 80 seconds is within the normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are generally considered benign and do not require immediate reporting. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), falls within normal limits for a laboring client and does not warrant immediate reporting.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In osteoarthritis, joint pain that improves with rest is a common characteristic due to the relief obtained by reducing weight-bearing on the affected joint. Joint stiffness that improves with movement is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Red, warm joints are typically seen in inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, while systemic inflammation is not a primary feature of osteoarthritis.

5. Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with a history of heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is the correct answer. It is a common diuretic used in patients with heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Metoprolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker often prescribed to manage heart failure symptoms by improving heart function. Digoxin (Choice C) is used in heart failure patients to help the heart beat stronger and with a more regular rhythm. Aspirin (Choice D) is not typically prescribed for heart failure but may be used in patients with heart disease for its antiplatelet effects.

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