Nursing Elites

1. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
• B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
• C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
• D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.

2. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

3. A client has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Take this medication with food.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach in the morning.
• D. Take this medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach in the morning to enhance its absorption. This timing allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Taking it with food, at bedtime, or with an antacid may interfere with its absorption and reduce its efficacy.

4. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

5. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-Salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Administer the medication intramuscularly.
• B. Swallow the medication whole.
• C. Inject the medication subcutaneously.
• D. Expect nasal bleeding with this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When teaching a client about Calcitonin-Salmon for Osteoporosis, the nurse should include instructions to inject the medication subcutaneously or administer it intranasally. Option A is incorrect because Calcitonin-Salmon is not typically administered intramuscularly. Option B is incorrect because it is not meant to be swallowed. Option D is incorrect as nasal bleeding is not an expected side effect with this medication.

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