ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
- B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
- C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
- D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.
2. Which of the following conditions is not treated with epinephrine?
- A. Renal disease
- B. Asthma
- C. Hypotension
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is not used to treat renal disease. Epinephrine is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma, hypotension, and glaucoma, but it is not an appropriate treatment for renal disease. Renal disease requires specific management strategies that do not involve the use of epinephrine.
3. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?
- A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
- B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
- C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
- D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.
4. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the patch each evening.
- B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
- C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
- D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.
5. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client with brain cancer experiencing headaches. Which of the following adjuvant medications is indicated for this client?
- A. Dexamethasone
- B. Methylphenidate
- C. Hydroxyzine
- D. Amitriptyline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer experiencing headaches as it decreases inflammation and swelling. It is commonly used to reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor. Methylphenidate (Choice B) is a central nervous system stimulant used in conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy, not for brain cancer headaches. Hydroxyzine (Choice C) is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not indicated for brain cancer headaches. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis, but not typically indicated for brain cancer headaches.
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