Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Administer intravenously to prevent injury.
• B. Ensure that the medication is kept refrigerated until just prior to administration.
• C. Do not shake the vial; gently invert it to mix before withdrawing the dose.
• D. Discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Filgrastim, only one dose should be withdrawn from the vial, and the vial should then be discarded to prevent any contamination or errors in dosing. It is crucial not to shake the vial but gently invert it to mix the medication before withdrawing the appropriate dose. Refrigeration is not required for Filgrastim; it should be stored at room temperature until just before administration. Choice A is incorrect because Filgrastim is typically administered subcutaneously, not intravenously. Choice B is incorrect as the medication should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated, until administration. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the vial is not recommended for Filgrastim.

2. A client is being taught by a nurse about long-term use of oral prednisone for chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Weight Gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of long-term prednisone use. Prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, can cause fluid retention and increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Nervousness (choice B) is more commonly associated with stimulant medications or excessive caffeine intake. Bradycardia (choice C) refers to a slow heart rate and is not a typical adverse effect of prednisone. Constipation (choice D) is not a common side effect of prednisone; in fact, prednisone is more likely to cause gastrointestinal issues such as increased appetite and weight gain.

3. What is the therapeutic class of Valproate?

• A. Anticoagulant
• B. Antianxiety, benzodiazepines
• C. Anticonvulsant, vascular headache suppressant
• D. Mood stabilizer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Valproate belongs to the therapeutic class of anticonvulsants. It is primarily used to manage seizures but is also effective in treating vascular headaches. Therefore, it is not classified as an anticoagulant, antianxiety medication, or mood stabilizer. Option A, anticoagulant, is incorrect as valproate does not have anticoagulant properties. Option B, antianxiety benzodiazepines, is incorrect as valproate is not primarily used to treat anxiety disorders with benzodiazepines. Option D, mood stabilizer, is incorrect as valproate is not classified as a mood stabilizer, although it can be used in some cases for mood disorders, its primary therapeutic class is anticonvulsant.

4. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove it each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time can lead to tolerance development. Applying the patch to a different site each day is not necessary, as long as the area is rotated to prevent skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair is not a critical instruction for the Nitroglycerin patch.

5. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
• B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
• C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
• D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.

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