Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?

• A. Leg cramps
• B. Hot flashes
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with raloxifene therapy. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of SERMs due to their estrogen-like effects on the body. Leg cramps, urinary frequency, and hair loss are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for hot flashes as part of the medication education.

2. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

3. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
• B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
• C. This medication can be given orally.
• D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue ceftriaxone if a rash develops, as it could indicate an allergic reaction that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough development, oral administration, and yellow urine are not typically associated with ceftriaxone use and are not critical information that the nurse needs to emphasize in this scenario.

4. What is a common side effect that typically occurs with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine as a result of increased vasodilation?

• A. Abdominal cramps
• B. Calf pain
• C. Headache
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Headache is a common side effect associated with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to its vasodilatory properties. The vasodilation caused by Nitroglycerine leads to relaxation of blood vessels, including those in the head, which can result in headaches. This side effect is considered normal and is often transient, diminishing with continued use of the medication.

5. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Furosemide
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

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