Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?

• A. Leg cramps
• B. Hot flashes
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Hair loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with raloxifene therapy. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of SERMs due to their estrogen-like effects on the body. Leg cramps, urinary frequency, and hair loss are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for hot flashes as part of the medication education.

2. A client has a prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of dehydration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalance, potentially causing dehydration. Signs of dehydration include dry mouth, increased thirst, and decreased urine output. It is important for the client to be vigilant in monitoring and reporting these symptoms to healthcare providers to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication in the morning, increasing potassium-rich foods, or taking the medication with food are not specific instructions related to the potential side effects of Hydrochlorothiazide.

3. Which of the following is not a side effect of the cholinoreceptor blocker (Atropine)?

• A. Increased pulse
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Constipation
• D. Mydriasis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic drug, commonly causes side effects like increased pulse, mydriasis (dilated pupils), and constipation due to its inhibitory effect on the parasympathetic nervous system. Diarrhea is not typically a side effect of Atropine, making it the correct answer.

4. A client is prescribed Propylthiouracil (PTU) for the treatment of Graves' disease. Which adverse effect should the client be instructed to report?

• A. Sore throat.
• B. Drowsiness.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Heat intolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. A sore throat and fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a serious adverse effect of PTU that can lead to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choice B, drowsiness, is not typically associated with PTU and is not a common adverse effect that needs to be reported. Choice C, urinary retention, is not a typical adverse effect of PTU; therefore, it is not the correct answer. Choice D, heat intolerance, is a symptom commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, which PTU is used to treat, so it is not an adverse effect that needs to be specifically reported.

5. A client with a UTI and a history of recurrent infections asks why the provider has not yet prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should explain that the provider has to wait for the results of which of the following laboratory tests to identify which antibiotic to prescribe?

• A. Gram stain
• B. Culture
• C. Sensitivity
• D. Specific gravity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the case of a UTI, a sensitivity test is crucial as it identifies the most effective antibiotic to target the specific microorganism causing the infection. This test helps in prescribing the appropriate antibiotic for successful treatment and preventing antibiotic resistance. While a Gram stain and culture are important in diagnosing a UTI, the sensitivity test specifically determines the most suitable antibiotic. Specific gravity, on the other hand, is not related to identifying the appropriate antibiotic for a UTI.

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