Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking levothyroxine is to take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach. This timing is important for optimal absorption of the medication. Taking levothyroxine with food or at bedtime can interfere with its absorption. Milk and other foods, as well as certain medications, can reduce the effectiveness of levothyroxine by interfering with its absorption, so it should be taken separately from these items. Therefore, the correct choice is to take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach.

2. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?

• A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
• B. Opioid, such as morphine
• C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
• D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects of Metformin should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

• A. Somnolence
• B. Constipation
• C. Fluid retention
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Somnolence. Somnolence can indicate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious adverse effect of Metformin. Lactic acidosis is manifested by extreme drowsiness, hyperventilation, and muscle pain. Clients should be instructed to report these symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly to prevent further complications.

4. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

5. A healthcare provider is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client who has severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication?

• A. Lowered heart rate
• B. Increased myocardial contractility
• C. Decreased conduction through the AV node
• D. Vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dopamine, when administered at a low dose, acts on beta1 receptors in the heart, leading to increased myocardial contractility. This positive inotropic effect results in improved cardiac output, which is beneficial for a client with severe heart failure. Dopamine does not typically cause lowered heart rate, decreased conduction through the AV node, or vasoconstriction of renal blood vessels at low doses.

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