a nurse is assessing a client who has a deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical finding that can indicate a pulmonary embolism, a severe complication of DVT. This symptom suggests a potential life-threatening situation and requires immediate intervention. Calf tenderness, while common in DVT, is not as urgent as shortness of breath. Elevated blood pressure and a respiratory rate of 18/min are important to assess but are not typically as indicative of a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about managing fluid intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "You should restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day." Clients with heart failure should limit their fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choice A is incorrect because 2 liters of water per day may be excessive for someone with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as unlimited fluid intake is not suitable for individuals with heart failure. Choice D is also incorrect as 3 liters per day may be too much fluid for a client with heart failure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, straining, and subsequent bleeding, which is crucial for clients with thrombocytopenia. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems to reduce the risk of foodborne illnesses but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia management.

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