ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Calf tenderness.
- B. Shortness of breath.
- C. Elevated blood pressure.
- D. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical finding that can indicate a pulmonary embolism, a severe complication of DVT. This symptom suggests a potential life-threatening situation and requires immediate intervention. Calf tenderness, while common in DVT, is not as urgent as shortness of breath. Elevated blood pressure and a respiratory rate of 18/min are important to assess but are not typically as indicative of a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism.
2. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- B. Check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours.
- C. Administer the feeding at room temperature.
- D. Flush the feeding tube with 20 mL of water every 8 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.
3. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
- B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
- C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
- D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild persistent asthma and has been prescribed montelukast. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication can be used to help you during an acute asthma attack.
- B. This medication helps decrease swelling and mucus production.
- C. This medication should be taken before exercise.
- D. This medication should be taken daily in the evening.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Montelukast should be taken daily in the evening for long-term control of asthma, rather than for immediate relief. Choice A is incorrect because montelukast is not used for acute asthma attacks. Choice B is incorrect as montelukast works by blocking leukotrienes, not by decreasing swelling and mucus production. Choice C is incorrect as montelukast is not specifically taken before exercise.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.
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