a nurse is assessing a client who has a deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical finding that can indicate a pulmonary embolism, a severe complication of DVT. This symptom suggests a potential life-threatening situation and requires immediate intervention. Calf tenderness, while common in DVT, is not as urgent as shortness of breath. Elevated blood pressure and a respiratory rate of 18/min are important to assess but are not typically as indicative of a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is the priority as it helps rapidly restore hydration in patients with dehydration by delivering fluids directly into the bloodstream. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but comes after providing immediate fluid resuscitation. Administering oral fluids (choice C) may not be sufficient for a patient with dehydration who requires rapid rehydration. Providing electrolyte replacement (choice D) is essential but often follows fluid resuscitation to correct any electrolyte imbalances resulting from dehydration.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, the gastrointestinal tract needs to rest to reduce pancreatic enzyme secretion. Inserting a nasogastric tube for suction helps decompress the stomach and reduce stimulation of the pancreas. Encouraging oral intake of clear liquids (Choice A) or administering an antiemetic before meals (Choice B) may aggravate the condition by stimulating the pancreas. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) may not directly address the underlying issue of reducing pancreatic stimulation.

4. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

5. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

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