Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 1 day postpartum plans to breastfeed. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?

• A. I will breastfeed every 4 hours.
• B. I will feed my baby from each breast for 5 minutes.
• C. I will use both breasts at each feeding.
• D. I will pump my breasts if my baby does not wake up to feed.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using both breasts at each feeding helps ensure adequate milk production and consumption. Option A is incorrect because breastfeeding should be done on demand rather than following a strict schedule. Option B is incorrect as limiting feeding time to 5 minutes per breast may not provide the baby with enough milk. Option D is also incorrect as pumping should not replace direct breastfeeding unless there is a specific medical reason to do so.

2. What is the most appropriate action when a patient experiences chest pain?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Administer nitroglycerin
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering aspirin is the correct initial action when a patient experiences chest pain. Aspirin helps reduce the risk of clot formation and is a standard first-line treatment for chest pain related to possible cardiac issues. Administering nitroglycerin may be appropriate based on the underlying cause of chest pain, but aspirin is typically administered first. Repositioning the patient is not the primary intervention for chest pain, and preparing for surgery is not the immediate action required unless indicated by a healthcare provider after assessment.

3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
• B. I will increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
• C. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
• D. I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients taking warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication.

4. Which lab value is critical for a patient on heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for patients on heparin therapy as it helps determine the clotting ability of the blood. By monitoring aPTT, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage of heparin to maintain therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding complications. Monitoring INR is more commonly associated with warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding or clotting disorders but is not specific to heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness or safety of heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

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