ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a gastrectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 94/min
- B. Oxygen saturation of 88%
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
- D. Temperature of 37.6°C (99.7°F)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a serious condition post-gastrectomy. Hypoxemia can lead to inadequate oxygen delivery to tissues, potentially causing complications like organ dysfunction or failure. This finding requires immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal ranges for a client post-gastrectomy, so they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the healthcare professional review before administering the medication?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. INR
- C. Platelet count
- D. Potassium levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Before administering enoxaparin, it is essential to review potassium levels to monitor for potential imbalances. Enoxaparin, a type of anticoagulant, does not directly affect PT, INR, or platelet count. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. PT and INR are typically used to monitor warfarin therapy, while platelet count is essential for assessing clotting function but is not directly related to enoxaparin administration.
3. While caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who reports chills, which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Stop the transfusion.
- B. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed.
- C. Notify the provider.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client reports chills during a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion. Chills can indicate a transfusion reaction, which is a potentially serious situation. Stopping the transfusion immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Administering acetaminophen or checking the client's blood pressure can come after ensuring the safety of the client by stopping the transfusion. Notifying the provider is important, but the immediate priority is to stop the transfusion.
4. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer sodium bicarbonate
- B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. Administer calcium gluconate
- D. Administer calcium carbonate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.
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