Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings is an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. BUN 16 mg/dL
• B. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• C. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
• D. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/min indicates severe kidney impairment and the need for hemodialysis. The other choices, such as BUN 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate the need for hemodialysis in chronic kidney disease.

2. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
• B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
• C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
• D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin. This action ensures that the nurse does not absorb any medication through their own skin, promoting safety. Choice A is incorrect because shaving is not necessary and could irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect because transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch to maintain their efficacy. Choice D is incorrect because used patches should be folded and discarded safely according to facility protocols.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Platelets
• C. aPTT
• D. INR

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. Monitoring the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is crucial when a client is receiving heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the clotting time and helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing clot formation. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range ensures that the medication is working optimally. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, platelets, and INR are not direct indicators of heparin's effectiveness or therapeutic range.

4. How should fluid balance in a patient with heart failure be monitored?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor input and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor daily weight. Daily weight monitoring is crucial in assessing fluid balance in patients with heart failure because sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Monitoring input and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a sign of fluid accumulation but may not be as accurate as daily weight monitoring. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is important in heart failure management but does not directly assess fluid balance.

5. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

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