ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take one puff every 5 minutes until symptoms improve.
- B. Hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication.
- C. Shake the inhaler for 2 seconds before use.
- D. Exhale forcefully after each puff.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to hold their breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication allows it to reach deeper into the lungs for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because taking one puff every 5 minutes may lead to overuse of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the inhaler for only 2 seconds may not provide adequate mixing of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because exhaling forcefully after each puff may reduce the amount of medication that reaches the lungs.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Does the doctor know you are eating that?
- B. Why are you eating seaweed soup?
- C. Of course, I will heat that up for you.
- D. The hospital food is more nutritious.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Respecting cultural preferences promotes trust and client-centered care.
3. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?
- A. Constipation
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Fever
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
- C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.
5. A nurse is reviewing laboratory data for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased creatinine
- B. Increased hemoglobin
- C. Increased bicarbonate
- D. Increased calcium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased creatinine. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to filter waste effectively, leading to a buildup of creatinine in the blood. This results in increased creatinine levels in laboratory tests. Choice B, increased hemoglobin, is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice C, increased bicarbonate, is also not a common finding in chronic kidney disease; in fact, metabolic acidosis with decreased bicarbonate levels is more common. Choice D, increased calcium, is not expected in chronic kidney disease; instead, calcium levels may be low due to impaired kidney function.
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