Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching about gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of a school-age child. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give?

• A. Administer the feeding over 30 minutes
• B. Place the child in a supine position after the feeding
• C. Change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days
• D. Warm the formula in the microwave prior to administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the feeding over 30 minutes. This slow administration helps prevent complications like nausea. Placing the child in a supine position after the feeding can increase the risk of aspiration, making choice B incorrect. Changing the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days is important for infection control and hygiene but is not directly related to the administration process, making choice C incorrect. Warming the formula in the microwave is not recommended as it can create hot spots that may burn the child's mouth or esophagus, so choice D is incorrect.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diarrhea.
• B. Urinary retention.
• C. Hypotension.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.

3. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
• B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
• C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.

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