Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Resume a regular diet immediately.
• B. Remove the adhesive bandage after 3 days.
• C. Begin moderate activity immediately.
• D. Take a tub bath instead of a shower.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The adhesive bandage should be removed 3 days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to allow the incision to heal properly. Choice A is incorrect as the client should start with a clear liquid diet and advance to a regular diet as tolerated. Choice C is incorrect because the client should gradually increase activity levels as tolerated. Choice D is incorrect as the client should avoid tub baths and opt for showers to prevent infection and promote healing.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. What action should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Withhold all medications until after dialysis.
• B. Rehydrate with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension.
• C. Check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis.
• D. Give an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action that the nurse should include in the plan for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is important to prevent complications such as infection or excessive bleeding. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not necessary unless specific medications need to be avoided due to the dialysis process. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for orthostatic hypotension (Choice B) is not directly related to post-dialysis care. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not a standard practice unless there is a specific clinical indication.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Nuchal rigidity.
• B. Flaccid paralysis.
• C. Bradycardia.
• D. Hypothermia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.

5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?

• A. Monitor urine output
• B. Check blood pressure
• C. Monitor IV site
• D. Check respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.

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