ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian for which of the following clients?
- A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
- B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
- C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
- D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A client with gout who plans to continue consuming anchovies should be referred to a dietitian for proper dietary education. Anchovies are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate dietitian referral as the statements made by these clients are appropriate actions regarding their prescribed medications (warfarin and spinach intake, spironolactone and potassium intake, and calcium carbonate and water intake, respectively).
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client scheduled for a CT scan with contrast media. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to the procedure?
- A. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm³
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.025
- C. History of asthma
- D. History of allergy to shellfish
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a history of allergy to shellfish. A known allergy to shellfish is a contraindication for the use of contrast media in a CT scan due to the potential risk of an allergic reaction, which could be severe and life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications to the procedure. A normal white blood cell count, urine specific gravity within the normal range, and a history of asthma do not typically interfere with the administration of contrast media for a CT scan.
4. A nurse is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) during a staffing shortage. Which client should be delegated to the LPN?
- A. A client with an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.
- B. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
- C. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction.
- D. A client who fractured his femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client postoperative following a bowel resection with an NG tube set to continuous suction requires routine postoperative care, which an LPN can manage. Choice A involves administering blood products, which typically requires assessment and monitoring by a registered nurse. Choice B indicates a potentially serious neurological condition that requires assessment by a higher-level provider. Choice D suggests a client experiencing respiratory distress, which requires immediate assessment and intervention by a registered nurse or physician.
5. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor INR
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.
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