ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian for which of the following clients?
- A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
- B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
- C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
- D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A client with gout who plans to continue consuming anchovies should be referred to a dietitian for proper dietary education. Anchovies are high in purines, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choices A, C, and D do not require immediate dietitian referral as the statements made by these clients are appropriate actions regarding their prescribed medications (warfarin and spinach intake, spironolactone and potassium intake, and calcium carbonate and water intake, respectively).
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a manifestation of opioid toxicity?
- A. Bradypnea.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Hypertension.
- D. Diaphoresis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a common sign of opioid toxicity. When a client is experiencing opioid toxicity, the respiratory system is usually the most affected, leading to a decrease in the respiratory rate (bradypnea). Tachycardia (increased heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and diaphoresis (excessive sweating) are not typical manifestations of opioid toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradypnea.
3. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
- B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
- C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
- D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.
4. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing confusion after surgery?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing confusion after surgery because it helps alleviate hypoxia, which may be causing the patient's confusion. Repositioning the patient would not directly address the potential hypoxia issue. Administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration or other reasons but is not the initial priority in addressing confusion post-surgery. Performing a neurological exam may be important later on to assess the patient's neurological status but should not be the first action taken when confusion is present.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
- B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
- C. Administer a bronchodilator.
- D. Administer oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve breathing by expanding the lungs and aiding in better oxygenation. Encouraging the client to take deep breaths may not be effective in managing dyspnea in COPD as it can lead to fatigue. Administering a bronchodilator may be necessary but placing the client in a high-Fowler's position should be the priority. Administering oxygen at 6 L/min via face mask may also be needed, but positioning is the initial intervention to optimize respiratory function.
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