Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

• A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
• B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
• C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
• D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

2. A nurse is caring for an adult client who has prescriptions for multiple medications. Which of the following is an age-related change that increases the risk for adverse effects from these medications?

• A. Rapid gastric emptying
• B. Prolonged medication half-life
• C. Increased medication elimination
• D. Decreased medication sensitivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prolonged medication half-life. As clients age, their metabolism tends to slow down, leading to a prolonged half-life of medications in the body. This extended presence of drugs can increase the risk for adverse effects as the substances accumulate. Choice A, rapid gastric emptying, is not an age-related change and actually decreases the time medications spend in the stomach, potentially reducing their effectiveness. Choice C, increased medication elimination, is not an age-related change either; in fact, aging can lead to decreased renal function, affecting drug elimination. Choice D, decreased medication sensitivity, is not an age-related change that directly increases the risk for adverse effects; rather, it may lead to requiring higher doses for effectiveness but does not inherently increase the risk of adverse effects.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Hypotension
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Urinary retention is an adverse effect of morphine, as it can lead to the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and sphincter constriction in the bladder. Diaphoresis, hypotension, and tachycardia are common side effects of morphine due to its vasodilatory effects and impact on the autonomic nervous system. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating, which can be a normal response to pain or fever. Hypotension and tachycardia can occur due to morphine's vasodilatory effects and its impact on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, the presence of urinary retention would indicate the need for further assessment and intervention.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dementia and is frequently agitated. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Offer the client several choices when scheduling activities.
• B. Confront the client when inappropriate behavior occurs.
• C. Use a calm, reassuring approach when speaking to the client.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in stimulating activities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is frequently agitated is to use a calm and reassuring approach when speaking to them. This approach helps reduce agitation and create a more therapeutic environment. Offering several choices may overwhelm the client and increase agitation, making choice A incorrect. Confronting the client can escalate the situation and worsen agitation, making choice B inappropriate. While encouraging stimulating activities is beneficial, it may not be the most effective intervention for immediate agitation management, making choice D less priority compared to using a calm and reassuring approach.

5. What is the best initial action when a patient presents with confusion?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Perform a neurological assessment
• C. Administer electrolytes
• D. Prepare for a CT scan

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient presents with confusion, the best initial action is to perform a neurological assessment. This assessment helps in identifying potential causes of confusion such as neurological issues, infections, metabolic abnormalities, or medication side effects. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on assessment findings, but it is not the first step. Administering electrolytes (Choice C) would also depend on the assessment results. Preparing for a CT scan (Choice D) may be indicated later in the diagnostic process but is not the initial action when a patient presents with confusion.

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