Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed sertraline for depression, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• B. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients prescribed sertraline should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Sertraline, an antidepressant belonging to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class, can interact with tyramine-rich foods, potentially causing a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific dietary restriction related to sodium, calcium, or potassium intake when taking sertraline.

2. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?

• A. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
• B. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
• C. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
• D. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client's life. However, susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be accurately estimated without considering the individual's coping resources and available support systems. Positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can mitigate the risk of stress-related illnesses even in the face of significant life changes and losses. Choice A is incorrect because it makes a definitive statement about the client's state without considering individual coping mechanisms and support. Choice B is incorrect because a score of 110 does not necessarily mean no threat of stress-related illness, as individual factors play a crucial role. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes a positive outlook without acknowledging the potential impact of the experienced losses on stress levels.

3. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a moody child with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The scenario describes Gilbert as having an early and slow onset of schizophrenia, which typically indicates a less positive prognosis. Individuals with such presentations may experience more severe symptoms and difficulties in functioning, leading to a poorer long-term outcome. In Gilbert's case, his challenges with completing tasks, social withdrawal, and fixation on security measures suggest a more challenging prognosis. Early detection and intervention are crucial in managing schizophrenia, but the described symptoms and onset pattern are concerning for a less favorable outcome.

4. Which behavior is consistent with therapeutic communication?

• A. Offering your opinion when asked to convey support.
• B. Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words.
• C. Interrupting periods of silence before they become awkward for the patient.
• D. Telling the patient they did well when you approve of their statements or actions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words is a key aspect of therapeutic communication as it demonstrates active listening and understanding. It shows the patient that their words have been heard and understood, fostering a sense of validation and empathy. Offering opinions, interrupting silence, or giving approval may not always align with the principles of therapeutic communication, which focus on patient-centered interactions and empathetic responses.

5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
• B. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.
• C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.
• D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should not stop taking buspirone (Buspar) abruptly as it may cause withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is correct as buspirone can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so avoiding driving is important. Choice C is also accurate because buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full effectiveness. Choice D is valid as buspirone is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

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