Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits disorganized speech and behavior, these symptoms are classified as:

• A. Positive symptoms
• B. Negative symptoms
• C. Cognitive symptoms
• D. Mood symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.

2. When preparing a teaching plan for a client with generalized anxiety disorder, which information should a healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoiding caffeine and other stimulants
• B. Engaging in regular physical activity
• C. Practicing relaxation techniques
• D. Keeping a journal of anxiety triggers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Practicing relaxation techniques. This is a crucial aspect of managing generalized anxiety disorder. Techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, and mindfulness can effectively reduce anxiety levels and promote calmness. These techniques provide valuable coping mechanisms to help individuals with generalized anxiety disorder deal with stress and anxiety.\nChoice A, avoiding caffeine and other stimulants, can be beneficial but is not as central to managing generalized anxiety disorder as practicing relaxation techniques.\nChoice B, engaging in regular physical activity, is also helpful for managing anxiety, but relaxation techniques are more specific and targeted for addressing symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder.\nChoice D, keeping a journal of anxiety triggers, may be a useful strategy to identify triggers but does not directly address the immediate management of anxiety symptoms, unlike practicing relaxation techniques.

3. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of reaction formation?

• A. A woman who feels unattractive constantly praises the looks of others.
• B. A man who feels insecure about his masculinity exaggerates his strength.
• C. A person who feels guilty about cheating accuses others of being unfaithful.
• D. A child who feels neglected tries to win approval from teachers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The defense mechanism of reaction formation involves expressing the opposite of one's true feelings. In this case, the woman who feels unattractive praises the looks of others as a way to mask her own feelings of inadequacy. This behavior represents a form of overcompensation where the individual showcases an exaggerated opposite trait to conceal their true emotions. Choices B, C, and D do not align with reaction formation. Choice B describes compensation, where one overemphasizes a trait to make up for a perceived weakness. Choice C illustrates projection, where one attributes their feelings onto others. Choice D demonstrates a form of seeking attention or approval, which does not fit reaction formation.

4. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

• A. Pacing and restlessness
• B. Verbal threats
• C. History of violence
• D. Substance abuse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

5. A patient with bipolar disorder has been prescribed lithium. Which dietary advice is important for the nurse to include?

• A. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
• B. Maintain a consistent salt intake.
• C. Increase protein intake.
• D. Avoid foods high in fat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed lithium should maintain a consistent salt intake to prevent fluctuations in lithium levels. Salt intake can impact lithium levels, and sudden changes in salt intake can affect how the body absorbs and excretes lithium. Therefore, advising the patient to maintain a stable salt intake is crucial for the effectiveness and safety of lithium therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in tyramine is more relevant for patients taking MAOIs, not lithium. Increasing protein intake or avoiding foods high in fat are not specific dietary recommendations for patients on lithium therapy.

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