ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits disorganized speech and behavior, these symptoms are classified as:
- A. Positive symptoms
- B. Negative symptoms
- C. Cognitive symptoms
- D. Mood symptoms
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.
2. A client has been prescribed sertraline for depression, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in sodium.
- B. Avoid foods high in calcium.
- C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients prescribed sertraline should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Sertraline, an antidepressant belonging to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class, can interact with tyramine-rich foods, potentially causing a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific dietary restriction related to sodium, calcium, or potassium intake when taking sertraline.
3. When an individual uses the defense mechanism of displacement after the boss openly disagrees with suggestions, what behavior would be expected from this individual?
- A. The individual assertively confronts the boss
- B. The individual leaves the staff meeting to work out in the gym
- C. The individual criticizes a coworker
- D. The individual takes the boss out to lunch
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The individual using the defense mechanism of displacement would criticize a coworker after being confronted by the boss. Displacement involves transferring feelings from one target to a neutral or less-threatening target, hence the individual criticizing a coworker instead of directly confronting the boss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because the individual is not likely to assertively confront the boss when using displacement. Choice B is incorrect as leaving the meeting to work out in the gym is not a typical response when displacement is used. Choice D is incorrect as taking the boss out to lunch does not align with the concept of displacement, which involves redirecting emotions onto another target.
4. An unemployed college graduate is experiencing severe anxiety over not finding a teaching position and has difficulty with independent problem-solving. During a routine physical examination, the graduate confides in the clinic nurse. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the graduate to use alternative coping mechanisms such as relaxation exercises.
- B. Complete the problem-solving process for the graduate.
- C. Work through the problem-solving process with the graduate.
- D. Encourage the graduate to keep a journal.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In situations where a client is experiencing severe anxiety and struggles with independent problem-solving, it is essential for the nurse to work through the problem-solving process together with the client. By doing so, the nurse can provide support and guidance to help the client navigate through their challenges effectively. Choice A is not the most appropriate as just encouraging alternative coping mechanisms may not address the root of the problem. Choice B of completing the problem-solving process for the graduate does not promote independence or skill development. Choice D of encouraging the graduate to keep a journal may be helpful but does not directly address the need for assistance in problem-solving during heightened anxiety.
5. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Medication management
- D. Group therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.
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