a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed escitalopram lexapro for the treatment of depression which of the foll
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A client has been prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid consuming alcohol while taking escitalopram (Lexapro). Alcohol can potentiate side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness when combined with this medication. Choice A is incorrect because escitalopram is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia if taken at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because taking the medication with or without food does not significantly affect its absorption or side effects. Choice D is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue taking the medication even if they start feeling better, as abruptly stopping an antidepressant can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

2. Therapeutic communication is the foundation of a patient-centered interview. Which of the following techniques is not considered therapeutic?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Asking 'why' questions is not considered a therapeutic technique in patient-centered communication as it can make patients feel defensive or judged. 'Why' questions may imply criticism or put the patient on the spot, potentially hindering open and honest communication. Instead, focusing on open-ended questions that encourage patients to express their feelings and thoughts without feeling judged or interrogated is more conducive to therapeutic communication.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may exhibit increased energy levels, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep, which can lead to risky behaviors and accidents. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimuli helps to reduce the risk of overstimulation and impulsive actions, thereby promoting the client's safety. This intervention aims to create a calm and controlled setting that can prevent potential harm to the client during this phase of the disorder.

4. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

5. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. Which potential side effect requires regular monitoring?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine, regular monitoring for agranulocytosis is essential. Agranulocytosis is a severe reduction in white blood cells that can be life-threatening. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent serious complications. Weight loss (Choice A) is not a common side effect of clozapine. Hypertension (Choice B) and hyperthyroidism (Choice D) are also not typically associated with clozapine use, making them incorrect choices for regular monitoring.

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