Nursing Elites

1. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to observe?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Weight gain
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight gain is a common symptom of major depressive disorder. Individuals with major depressive disorder often experience changes in appetite, leading to weight gain or loss. This symptom is related to disruptions in the individual's eating habits and metabolism, which are commonly associated with depression. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, increased appetite, and restlessness are not typical symptoms of major depressive disorder. In fact, individuals with depression often experience fatigue, changes in appetite, and feelings of restlessness or agitation.

3. Which of the following is not a potential side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

• A. Short-term memory loss
• B. Headache
• C. Confusion
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) can have side effects such as short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, particularly antipsychotics.

4. When evaluating a client's progress in psychotherapy, which outcome is appropriate for the client?

• A. The client will identify triggers for anxiety.
• B. The client will develop coping strategies.
• C. The client will decrease avoidance behaviors.
• D. The client will express feelings of anger.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In psychotherapy, identifying triggers for anxiety is a crucial step towards understanding and managing one's anxiety symptoms. By recognizing these triggers, clients can work on developing coping strategies and addressing the root cause of their anxiety, leading to improved mental health outcomes. Decreasing avoidance behaviors and expressing feelings of anger are also important aspects of therapy. However, identifying triggers for anxiety is a more specific and foundational goal in addressing anxiety disorders, making it the most appropriate outcome to evaluate a client's progress in psychotherapy.

5. Which of the following statements should a healthcare professional recognize as true about defense mechanisms? Select the one that doesn't apply.

• A. They are employed when there is a threat to biological or psychological integrity.
• B. They are controlled by the id and deal with primal urges.
• C. They are used in an effort to relieve mild to moderate anxiety.
• D. They are protective devices for the superego.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Defense mechanisms are employed by the ego in the face of threats to biological and psychological integrity to relieve mild to moderate anxiety. They act as protective devices for the ego, not the id or superego. The id represents primal instincts, while the superego is associated with moral standards. Defense mechanisms help individuals cope with stressors by redirecting focus and are often unconscious and self-deceptive.

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