Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude from the teaching?

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Discourage the client from washing her hands
• D. You may experience an increase in energy before your mood improves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not include the instruction to discourage the client from washing her hands in the teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant. This instruction is not relevant to the medication regimen. Instead, the nurse should educate the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, to avoid alcohol, not to discontinue the medication abruptly, and that there may be an increase in energy before mood improves. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants.

2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client manage compulsive behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to suppress compulsive behaviors.
• B. Allow the client to perform compulsive behaviors with limits.
• C. Teach the client relaxation techniques to manage anxiety.
• D. Discourage the client from performing compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors with limits is a therapeutic intervention for managing OCD. This approach grants the client some autonomy while ensuring that the behaviors do not excessively disrupt daily life. Setting boundaries helps structure the behaviors, decreasing anxiety and distress associated with OCD. Encouraging the client to suppress compulsive behaviors (choice A) may lead to increased anxiety and potential worsening of symptoms. Teaching relaxation techniques (choice C) is beneficial for managing anxiety in general but may not directly address the compulsive behaviors. Discouraging the client from performing compulsive behaviors (choice D) without providing alternative strategies or support may increase distress and resistance.

5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel less anxious.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take full effect.
• D. This medication can cause dependency.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it indicates a misunderstanding about buspirone. Buspirone should not be abruptly stopped, and patients should follow the prescribed regimen consistently. Stopping the medication without proper guidance can lead to adverse effects or a return of anxiety symptoms. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of important aspects of buspirone therapy: avoiding alcohol due to interactions, being patient for the medication to reach full effectiveness, and being aware of the potential for dependency with this medication.

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