a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis which of the following foods should the nurse recommend a nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis which of the following foods should the nurse recommend
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.

2. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab findings of a client who has Clostridium Difficile. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client is experiencing Fluid Volume Deficit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated hematocrit level (Hct 53%) indicates hemoconcentration, a sign of fluid volume deficit. Hct measures the percentage of red blood cells in the blood and increases when there is a decrease in plasma volume, as seen in fluid volume deficit. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to fluid volume status. Potassium and sodium levels are more indicative of electrolyte imbalances, while HbA1c reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months and is not specific to fluid volume status.

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