Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Broccoli
• B. Bananas
• C. Cheddar cheese
• D. Whole wheat bread

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.

2. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
• C. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
• D. Urine ketones present

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.

3. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

• A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
• B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
• C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
• D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery and is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Diaphoresis.
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common response to acute pain due to increased sympathetic nervous system activity. Options A and B, Bradycardia and Hypotension, are unlikely findings in a client experiencing acute pain as pain usually triggers an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and blood pressure. Option D, Hyperactive bowel sounds, is not typically associated with acute pain.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will decrease my potassium intake while taking this medication.
• B. I will need to take medication for the rest of my life.
• C. I will avoid using salt substitutes.
• D. I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with hypertension should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which can raise potassium levels. Choice A is incorrect as decreasing potassium intake is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as not all clients with hypertension need to take medication for life. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice does not significantly impact hypertension management.

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