ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Baked chicken
- B. Bananas
- C. Lean cuts of beef
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Canned soup. Canned soups are typically high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention in clients with chronic kidney disease. Sodium restriction is crucial in managing this condition. Choice A, baked chicken, is a lean protein source that is generally recommended for individuals with kidney disease. Bananas (Choice B) are high in potassium, so clients with kidney disease may need to limit their intake depending on their individual treatment plan. Lean cuts of beef (Choice C) can be a good source of protein and iron for clients with kidney disease as long as portion sizes are controlled to manage protein intake.
2. Which of the following is a sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slower than normal heart rate, is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, but an excess of digoxin in the body can lead to toxicity. This toxicity can manifest as various symptoms, with bradycardia being one of the most common ones. Hypertension (high blood pressure) and tachycardia (fast heart rate) are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Tachypnea, which refers to rapid breathing, is also not a common sign of digoxin toxicity.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient with constipation?
- A. Administer a stool softener
- B. Encourage fluid intake
- C. Provide a high-fiber diet
- D. Administer a laxative
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging fluid intake is the best intervention for a patient with constipation. Fluids help soften stools, making them easier to pass. While stool softeners and laxatives can also help with constipation, they are more of a short-term solution and may not address the root cause. A high-fiber diet is beneficial for preventing constipation in the long run, but in the immediate situation of constipation, fluid intake is key.
5. A client who is 48 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 80/min
- B. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing
- C. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
- D. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sanguineous drainage from the surgical site 48 hours after surgery could indicate a complication such as hemorrhage or infection and should be reported. Sanguineous drainage is typically seen in the early postoperative period due to the presence of blood. Serous drainage, on the other hand, is normal in the later stages of wound healing. A heart rate of 80/min is within the normal range for an adult. A temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F) is slightly elevated but not a concerning finding in the absence of other symptoms.
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