Nursing Elites

1. Which mood stabilizer is commonly prescribed for bipolar disorder?

• A. Sertraline
• B. Lithium
• C. Clozapine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is a well-established mood stabilizer commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control manic episodes, stabilize mood swings, and reduce the risk of relapse in individuals with this condition. Sertraline is an antidepressant commonly used for treating depression, while Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications used for different psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it is specifically indicated and effective for bipolar disorder.

2. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife should indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief?

• A. If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out.
• B. I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did.
• C. Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.
• D. I still don't have any appetite and continue to lose weight.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief based on the statement 'Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.' In this statement, the client is acknowledging the difficulty of the relationship but also expressing personal growth and learning from the experience, indicating acceptance. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect the acceptance stage of grief. Choice A shows a sense of regret and a wish for things to have turned out differently. Choice B demonstrates lingering anger towards the ex-husband. Choice D suggests ongoing physical manifestations of grief like loss of appetite and weight loss, which are more indicative of earlier stages of grief.

3. What is the most significant consequence of the excessive use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Suppression of problem-solving skills.
• B. Intense experience of emotions.
• C. Enhancement of learning and growth.
• D. Limitation of problem-solving.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most significant consequence of the excessive use of defense mechanisms is the limitation of problem-solving skills. When individuals rely excessively on defense mechanisms to cope with stress or anxiety, they may avoid addressing underlying issues or seeking healthier coping strategies. This can lead to maladaptive behaviors, hindering their ability to effectively deal with reality, maintain healthy relationships, or perform well in various aspects of life. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the suppression of problem-solving skills, intense experience of emotions, and enhancement of learning and growth are not the primary consequences of excessive use of defense mechanisms.

4. A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. Encourage the patient to talk about the trauma.
• B. Help the patient reorient to the present.
• C. Leave the patient alone to process the flashback.
• D. Remind the patient that the flashback is not real.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks, the most appropriate intervention is to help them reorient to the present. This intervention can assist in reducing the intensity of the flashback and providing a sense of safety for the patient. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the patient to talk about the trauma during a flashback may exacerbate their distress. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the patient alone can increase their feelings of isolation and fear. Choice D is incorrect because reminding the patient that the flashback is not real may invalidate their experience and increase their sense of disconnection.

5. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

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