Nursing Elites

1. Which mood stabilizer is commonly prescribed for bipolar disorder?

• A. Sertraline
• B. Lithium
• C. Clozapine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is a well-established mood stabilizer commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control manic episodes, stabilize mood swings, and reduce the risk of relapse in individuals with this condition. Sertraline is an antidepressant commonly used for treating depression, while Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications used for different psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it is specifically indicated and effective for bipolar disorder.

2. When educating the family of a client diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid stressful situations.
• B. Encourage the client to participate in daily activities.
• C. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• D. Encourage the client to develop a daily routine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of dissociative identity disorder, it is beneficial for the client to establish a daily routine. This structure can enhance symptom management and provide a sense of stability, which is particularly important for individuals with this condition. Encouraging the client to avoid stressful situations (Choice A) may not always be possible and does not address the need for structure. While encouraging the client to participate in daily activities (Choice B) is important, having a routine is more crucial for managing dissociative identity disorder. Expressing feelings (Choice C) is valuable but establishing a routine takes precedence in this situation.

3. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs can cause anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, due to their mechanism of action. Educating the patient about dry mouth can help them stay informed and manage this common side effect effectively during treatment. Hypertension (Choice A) is not a common side effect of TCAs. Diarrhea (Choice B) is more commonly associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) than with TCAs. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a common side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause weight gain.

4. Devastated by a divorce from an abusive husband, a wife completes grief counseling. Which statement by the wife should indicate to a nurse that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief?

• A. If only we could have tried again, things might have worked out.
• B. I am so mad that the children and I had to put up with him as long as we did.
• C. Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.
• D. I still don't have any appetite and continue to lose weight.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is in the acceptance stage of grief based on the statement 'Yes, it was a difficult relationship, but I think I have learned from the experience.' In this statement, the client is acknowledging the difficulty of the relationship but also expressing personal growth and learning from the experience, indicating acceptance. Choices A, B, and D do not reflect the acceptance stage of grief. Choice A shows a sense of regret and a wish for things to have turned out differently. Choice B demonstrates lingering anger towards the ex-husband. Choice D suggests ongoing physical manifestations of grief like loss of appetite and weight loss, which are more indicative of earlier stages of grief.

5. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

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