ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with impaired mobility. Which of the following support devices should the healthcare professional plan to use to prevent the client from developing plantar flexion contractures?
- A. Sheepskin heel pad
- B. Footboard
- C. Trochanter roll
- D. Abduction pillow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A footboard is the correct choice to prevent plantar flexion contractures by maintaining proper alignment of the feet. Plantar flexion contractures involve the foot pointing downward, and a footboard helps keep the foot in a neutral position. Choice A, the sheepskin heel pad, is used for pressure ulcer prevention and comfort but does not specifically address plantar flexion contractures. Choice C, the trochanter roll, is used for hip positioning, not foot alignment. Choice D, the abduction pillow, is used to maintain proper positioning of the legs but does not directly address plantar flexion contractures.
2. A client with a new prescription for sumatriptan tablets to treat migraine headaches should report which of the following symptoms to the nurse?
- A. Chew the tablet well before swallowing
- B. Report swelling of the eyelids after dosage
- C. Repeat dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache
- D. Take daily to prevent headaches
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because swelling of the eyelids is a side effect of sumatriptan tablets that requires immediate reporting to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Chewing the tablet well before swallowing is not necessary for sumatriptan tablets. Repeating the dose in 1 hour for unrelieved headache is incorrect as this medication should not be repeated within 24 hours. Taking sumatriptan daily for headache prevention is also incorrect as it is used for acute treatment, not prevention.
3. What are the clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock, and how should a nurse respond?
- A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and oliguria
- B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and peripheral edema
- C. Tachypnea, cool skin, and confusion
- D. Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tachycardia, hypotension, and decreased urine output are classic clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock. In hypovolemic shock, the body tries to compensate for low blood volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain cardiac output, leading to hypotension and decreased urine output. Prompt fluid replacement is necessary to restore intravascular volume. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent the typical manifestations of hypovolemic shock.
4. A client who had a stroke is complaining of left-side weakness. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Initiate physical therapy immediately.
- B. Contact the physical therapy team.
- C. Reassess the client after administering pain medication.
- D. Start treatment immediately without consulting anyone.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the physical therapy team. When a client who had a stroke presents with left-side weakness, the nurse should prioritize coordinating with the physical therapy team rather than immediately initiating physical therapy. The initial step should involve assessing the client's condition and involving the appropriate healthcare team for a comprehensive care plan. Administering pain medication or starting treatment without consulting others can delay or hinder the appropriate care needed for the client's recovery.
5. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of guided imagery for pain management in a patient with second- and third-degree burns requiring extensive dressing changes. Which finding best indicates the effectiveness of guided imagery?
- A. The patient's need for analgesic medication decreases during the dressing changes.
- B. The patient rates pain during the dressing change as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.
- C. The patient asks for pain medication during the dressing changes only once throughout the procedure.
- D. The patient's facial expressions remain stoic during the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A reduction in the need for analgesic medication indicates that guided imagery is effective in managing the patient's pain. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of guided imagery. A patient rating pain as 6 on a scale of 0 to 10, asking for pain medication once, or having stoic facial expressions may not necessarily reflect the impact of guided imagery on pain management.
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