a nurse is assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection which finding is most concerning
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection. Which finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fever of 101°F is the most concerning finding when assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection. Fever can indicate an inflammatory response to an infection, and in a postoperative patient, it can signal a surgical site infection or a systemic infection. Prompt attention is necessary to prevent complications such as sepsis. Mild redness at the incision site and increased drainage can be expected in the early postoperative period due to the normal healing process. A normal white blood cell count does not rule out infection as it can be influenced by various factors, and some infections may not initially cause a rise in white blood cells.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for amoxicillin clavulanate to treat pharyngitis. Which statement indicates understanding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should never double the dose if a dose is missed. This can lead to an overdose, which can cause serious adverse effects. Instead, the client should take the next dose as scheduled or consult the provider for guidance.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.

5. Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the most appropriate goal for a patient who has had a total hip replacement because it is specific, measurable, and achievable. Walking 100 feet using a walker is a realistic and individualized target for a patient in the recovery phase following hip surgery. Choices A, C, and D are not as suitable: Choice A does not specify a measurable distance or objective, Choice C sets a potentially unrealistic expectation for brisk ambulation on a treadmill, and Choice D lacks the specificity of the distance to be walked.

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