Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection. Which finding is most concerning?

• A. Mild redness at the incision site.
• B. Increased drainage from the surgical site.
• C. Fever of 101°F.
• D. Normal white blood cell count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fever of 101°F is the most concerning finding when assessing a postoperative patient for signs of infection. Fever can indicate an inflammatory response to an infection, and in a postoperative patient, it can signal a surgical site infection or a systemic infection. Prompt attention is necessary to prevent complications such as sepsis. Mild redness at the incision site and increased drainage can be expected in the early postoperative period due to the normal healing process. A normal white blood cell count does not rule out infection as it can be influenced by various factors, and some infections may not initially cause a rise in white blood cells.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer verapamil to a client who is 2 days postmyocardial infarction. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following outcomes as a therapeutic response to the medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Decreased anginal pain
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Decreased anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased anginal pain. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to relieve angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand. Monitoring for decreased anginal pain is essential as it indicates a therapeutic response to the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as verapamil's primary goal in this context is not to decrease blood pressure, heart rate, or anxiety.

3. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). Which of the following tasks should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. Administering an oral antibiotic to a client
• B. Performing an admission assessment of a client
• C. Creating new teaching for a guardian of a toddler
• D. Administering IV conscious sedation to a client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oral antibiotics is within the scope of practice for an LPN and can be safely delegated. LPNs are trained to administer medications, including oral ones. Performing an admission assessment (Choice B) involves critical thinking and comprehensive evaluation, typically done by registered nurses. Creating new teaching material (Choice C) requires specialized knowledge and is usually the responsibility of a nurse with additional training in education. Administering IV conscious sedation (Choice D) is a high-risk task that requires advanced skills and should be performed by a registered nurse or higher-level provider.

4. When preparing to give a report during a shift change, what information is most critical to communicate?

• A. Include a full family medical history.
• B. Focus on changes in the patient's condition.
• C. Summarize the patient's treatment plan.
• D. Provide updates on the patient's lab results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a shift change report, the most critical information to communicate is focusing on changes in the patient's condition. This helps ensure that all healthcare providers are aware of any significant developments or deterioration in the patient's health status, allowing for timely and appropriate interventions. Choices A, C, and D are not as crucial during a shift report. While a full family medical history and treatment plan are important aspects of patient care, they are not the primary focus during a shift change report. Providing updates on lab results may be important but may not be as time-sensitive or immediately impactful as changes in the patient's condition.

5. A client has a prescription for vancomycin 1g IV intermittent infusion over 30 minutes every 12 hours. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Start the infusion immediately
• B. Slow down the infusion rate
• C. Contact the provider for prescription clarification
• D. Check blood pressure during the infusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the provider for prescription clarification. Administering vancomycin over less than 60 minutes can lead to infusion reactions like hypotension and flushing. Starting the infusion immediately (choice A) is incorrect as it goes against the prescribed rate. Slowing down the infusion rate (choice B) without provider approval can result in underdosing the medication. Checking blood pressure during the infusion (choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this situation.

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