a nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride iv to a client who has hypokalemia which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cyanosis of the lips and nail beds. Cyanosis is a late sign of hypoxia and indicates severe oxygen deprivation, requiring immediate intervention in clients with pneumonia. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, productive cough with green sputum, and mild shortness of breath are common findings in clients with pneumonia and may not require immediate intervention unless they worsen or are accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.

4. A nurse working in a rehabilitation facility is developing a discharge plan for a client who has left-sided hemiplegia. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ensure that the client has a referral for physical therapy.' For a client with left-sided hemiplegia, physical therapy is crucial in restoring function and mobility. It is the nurse's priority to ensure the client receives the necessary rehabilitation services. Consulting with a case manager about insurance coverage (Choice A) is important but not the priority at this stage. Counseling caregivers on respite care options (Choice B) and referring the client to a local stroke support group (Choice D) are also valuable but not as essential as ensuring the client has access to physical therapy for rehabilitation.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can trigger GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating three large meals each day can exacerbate GERD symptoms by putting pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, lying down after meals can worsen reflux due to gravity, and increasing dairy product intake may lead to higher fat consumption, which can also trigger GERD symptoms.

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