Nursing Elites

1. A client informs the nurse that she has difficulty swallowing tablets and struggles with liquid or chewable medications due to taste. What medication should the nurse request a prescription for when preparing to administer Penicillin V to treat the client's streptococcal infection?

• A. Fosfomycin
• B. Amoxicillin
• C. Nafcillin
• D. Cefaclor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nafcillin is an appropriate alternative within the penicillin class for clients who have difficulty swallowing tablets or struggle with liquid or chewable medications. It is available for intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) administration, offering options beyond oral formulations. Fosfomycin, Amoxicillin, and Cefaclor are not suitable alternatives for Penicillin V in this scenario as they belong to different classes of antibiotics and may not be as effective in treating streptococcal infections.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
• C. Expect to have increased urination.
• D. Take the medication with an antacid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding. The client should monitor for any signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, and report them promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because Clopidogrel can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of Clopidogrel. Choice D is incorrect as taking Clopidogrel with an antacid may reduce its effectiveness.

3. A client has a prescription for Hydralazine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• C. Expect to have increased energy levels.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood pressure regularly. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that helps lower blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to ensure it remains within the target range and to assess the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of taking Hydralazine is usually not specified as bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because increased energy levels are not an expected effect of Hydralazine. Choice D is incorrect because Hydralazine does not interact with potassium in the same way as other medications like potassium-sparing diuretics.

4. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
• B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea that occurs with morphine.
• C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
• D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare professional should take when administering Morphine IV to a postoperative client is to withhold the medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min. Respiratory depression is a common adverse effect of opioids like Morphine. Administering opioids when the respiratory rate is already compromised can further depress breathing, leading to life-threatening complications. Monitoring for seizures and confusion (Choice A) is not directly related to Morphine administration. Protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea (Choice B) is not a common side effect of morphine. Administering Morphine via IV bolus (Choice D) should be done carefully but is not the most critical action in this scenario.

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