ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client informs the nurse that she has difficulty swallowing tablets and struggles with liquid or chewable medications due to taste. What medication should the nurse request a prescription for when preparing to administer Penicillin V to treat the client's streptococcal infection?
- A. Fosfomycin
- B. Amoxicillin
- C. Nafcillin
- D. Cefaclor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nafcillin is an appropriate alternative within the penicillin class for clients who have difficulty swallowing tablets or struggle with liquid or chewable medications. It is available for intramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV) administration, offering options beyond oral formulations. Fosfomycin, Amoxicillin, and Cefaclor are not suitable alternatives for Penicillin V in this scenario as they belong to different classes of antibiotics and may not be as effective in treating streptococcal infections.
2. A client has a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
3. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Take the medication with breakfast.
- B. Increase intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.
- D. Limit sodium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.
4. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, monitoring serum glucose levels is essential. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can lead to hyperglycemia. Therefore, regular monitoring of serum glucose helps in detecting and managing any potential hyperglycemic effects of the medication. Monitoring serum potassium, calcium, or sodium is not typically required when a client is on Prednisone unless there are specific risk factors or concerns related to these electrolytes.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.
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