Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?

• A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
• B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
• C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
• D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medication orders for a client with heart failure. Which of the following medications should the nurse clarify with the provider?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Digoxin
• D. Ibuprofen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ibuprofen. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can worsen heart failure due to its effects on renal function and fluid retention. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the use of Ibuprofen with the provider. Choices A, B, and C (Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Digoxin) are commonly prescribed medications for heart failure that help manage symptoms and improve cardiac function, so they do not need clarification in this scenario.

3. A nurse manager is presenting to a group of unit nurses the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act. Which of the following medications should the nurse include under Schedule II?

• A. Buprenorphine hydrochloride
• B. Hydrocodone bitartrate
• C. Diazepam
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hydrocodone bitartrate. According to the Controlled Substances Act, hydrocodone bitartrate is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and addiction. Diazepam (Choice C) and morphine (Choice D) are classified as Schedule IV and Schedule II controlled substances, respectively. Buprenorphine hydrochloride (Choice A) is classified as a Schedule III controlled substance. Therefore, hydrocodone bitartrate should be included under Schedule II medications when discussing the categories regulated under the Controlled Substances Act.

4. A nurse is monitoring an older adult female client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) for the development of an acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as indicating an increased risk of AKI?

• A. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
• C. Serum Osmolality 290 mOsm/kg H2O
• D. Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated serum creatinine level (1.8 mg/dL) is a significant indicator of potential kidney impairment. In acute kidney injury (AKI), serum creatinine levels rise due to decreased kidney function, reflecting the kidneys' inability to effectively filter waste from the blood. Magnesium level, BUN, and serum osmolality are not direct indicators of kidney function or risk of AKI. Magnesium levels are more related to electrolyte balance, BUN can be affected by factors other than kidney function, and serum osmolality reflects the concentration of solutes in the blood, not specifically kidney function.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with dehydration. Which finding indicates the patient's condition is worsening?

• A. Dry mucous membranes.
• B. Tachycardia and low blood pressure.
• C. Bradycardia and shallow respirations.
• D. Clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tachycardia and low blood pressure are indicative of worsening dehydration in a patient. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased intravascular volume, while low blood pressure reflects inadequate perfusion due to decreased fluid levels. Bradycardia and shallow respirations are not typical findings in worsening dehydration, and clear lung sounds do not directly correlate with the severity of dehydration.

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