ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2019 B
1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to four clients. The nurse should administer medications to which client first?
- A. A client who has pneumonia and a WBC count of 11,500/mm3 prescribed piperacillin
- B. A client who has renal failure and a serum potassium of 5.8 mEq/L prescribed sodium polystyrene sulfonate
- C. A client who is post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) prescribed atorvastatin
- D. A client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with renal failure and high potassium levels requires immediate attention because hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac complications. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate helps lower the potassium levels. Choice A, the client with pneumonia and a high WBC count, although important, does not present an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C, the post-CABG client prescribed atorvastatin, and Choice D, the client with anemia and a hemoglobin level of 11g/dL prescribed epoetin alfa, do not require immediate intervention compared to managing hyperkalemia in a client with renal failure.
2. What is the primary focus of secondary prevention in community mental health care?
- A. Teaching stress-reduction techniques
- B. Early detection of mental illness
- C. Leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder
- D. Rehabilitation and prevention of further issues
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Early detection of mental illness. Secondary prevention in community mental health care focuses on identifying mental health issues at an early stage to provide timely interventions. Choice A, teaching stress-reduction techniques, is more aligned with primary prevention aimed at preventing the onset of mental health problems. Choice C, leading support groups for clients with substance use disorder, pertains more to providing specific interventions for individuals with substance use issues rather than the general focus of secondary prevention. Choice D, rehabilitation and prevention of further issues, is more related to tertiary prevention, which involves addressing existing mental health conditions and preventing complications or recurrence.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new prescription for antibiotics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer the antibiotic immediately
- B. Obtain a sputum culture
- C. Notify the provider of the prescription
- D. Check the client's allergy history
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with pneumonia who has a new prescription for antibiotics is to obtain a sputum culture. This is important to identify the specific bacteria causing the pneumonia before administering antibiotics. Administering the antibiotic immediately (Choice A) may not be appropriate without knowing the specific pathogen. Notifying the provider of the prescription (Choice C) is important but not the first action to be taken. Checking the client's allergy history (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority in this situation.
4. The nurse is working on an orthopedic rehabilitation unit that requires lifting and positioning of patients. Which personal injury will the nurse most likely try to prevent?
- A. Hip
- B. Back
- C. Arm
- D. Ankle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Back. Back injuries are most common during lifting and bending tasks, especially in an orthopedic unit. When lifting or repositioning patients, nurses must prioritize proper body mechanics to prevent strain on the back. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to occur as frequently as back injuries in this scenario because of the nature of the tasks involved in orthopedic patient care.
5. A nurse is assigned to care for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client with chest pain and shortness of breath
- B. A client with a fever of 100°F
- C. A client scheduled for surgery
- D. A client with stable vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest pain and shortness of breath are symptoms that could indicate a life-threatening condition such as a heart attack or pulmonary embolism. Therefore, this client should be assessed first to ensure prompt intervention and treatment. Choice B, a client with a fever of 100°F, may indicate an infection but is not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms of chest pain and shortness of breath. Choice C, a client scheduled for surgery, is not an immediate priority unless there are specific preoperative assessments or interventions required. Choice D, a client with stable vital signs, does not indicate an urgent need for assessment compared to the client with chest pain and shortness of breath.
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